Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important side effect for the LPN/LVN to monitor?

• A. Weight gain.
• B. Sexual dysfunction.
• C. Nausea.
• D. Constipation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sexual dysfunction. When monitoring a client taking fluoxetine (Prozac), the LPN/LVN should prioritize observing for sexual dysfunction. This side effect is crucial to monitor as it can significantly impact the client's quality of life and may affect their adherence to the medication. Weight gain (choice A) is a possible side effect of fluoxetine but is not as critical as sexual dysfunction in terms of monitoring. Nausea (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are common side effects of fluoxetine, but they are generally less concerning compared to the impact of sexual dysfunction on the client's well-being and treatment compliance.

2. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse notices that the client has a shuffling gait and tremors. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of an anticholinergic medication.
• B. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
• C. Assess the client's blood glucose level.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A shuffling gait and tremors may indicate extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) from risperidone. The nurse's priority action should be to administer an anticholinergic medication as it can help alleviate these symptoms associated with EPS. Documenting the findings and monitoring the client (Choice B) are important but addressing the immediate symptoms takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is not directly related to the observed symptoms of shuffling gait and tremors. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, it is not the priority action when dealing with EPS symptoms.

3. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. The LPN/LVN notes that the client has not bathed or dressed in clean clothes for several days. What is the most appropriate intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to take a shower.
• B. Assist the client with activities of daily living.
• C. Provide the client with clean clothes to change into.
• D. Explain the importance of personal hygiene to the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client with activities of daily living. This intervention is the most appropriate as it directly addresses the client's immediate needs by providing assistance with personal hygiene and dressing. It promotes self-care and ensures the client's well-being. Encouraging the client to take a shower (Choice A) may not be effective if the client is unable to do so independently due to their condition. Providing clean clothes (Choice C) is important but does not address the client's need for assistance with personal care. Explaining the importance of personal hygiene (Choice D) may not be as effective as providing direct assistance in this situation.

4. A 40-year-old male client diagnosed with schizophrenia and alcohol dependence has not had any visitors or phone calls since admission. He reports he has no family that cares about him and was living on the streets prior to this admission. According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, which stage is the client in at this time?

• A. Isolation.
• B. Stagnation.
• C. Despair.
• D. Role confusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is in Erikson's 'Generativity vs. Stagnation' stage (age 24 to 45). This stage involves maintaining intimate relationships and moving toward developing a family, which the client seems to be struggling with due to lack of visitors and family support. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect. Isolation typically occurs in young adulthood (age 18 to 25), Despair in maturity (age 45 to death), and Role confusion in adolescence (age 12 to 20). These stages reflect challenges individuals face if they do not successfully navigate their psychosocial developmental tasks.

5. A male employee who is assessed weekly in the employee clinic for blood pressure because of a history of hypertension tells the nurse that he is so upset with one of his co-workers that he would like to shoot him. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Determine if the client has a weapon available for use.
• B. Inform the health care provider of the threat to harm a co-worker.
• C. Notify security of the client's intention to harm a co-worker.
• D. Have the employee escorted to a mental health facility.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Determining if the client has access to a weapon is critical for immediate safety and to prevent potential harm.

Similar Questions