HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important side effect for the LPN/LVN to monitor?
- A. Weight gain.
- B. Sexual dysfunction.
- C. Nausea.
- D. Constipation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sexual dysfunction. When monitoring a client taking fluoxetine (Prozac), the LPN/LVN should prioritize observing for sexual dysfunction. This side effect is crucial to monitor as it can significantly impact the client's quality of life and may affect their adherence to the medication. Weight gain (choice A) is a possible side effect of fluoxetine but is not as critical as sexual dysfunction in terms of monitoring. Nausea (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are common side effects of fluoxetine, but they are generally less concerning compared to the impact of sexual dysfunction on the client's well-being and treatment compliance.
2. An 86-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease is wandering the busy halls of the extended care facility and asks the nurse, "Where should I stand for the parade?" Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?
- A. Anywhere you want to stand as long as you do not get hurt by those in the parade.
- B. You are confused because of all the activity in the hall. There is no parade.
- C. Let us go back to the activity room and see what is going on in there.
- D. Remember I told you that this is a nursing home and I am your nurse.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Redirecting the client to a less confusing environment can help reduce anxiety and reorient her to reality.
3. The nurse is planning care for a 32-year-old male client diagnosed with HIV infection who has a history of chronic depression. Recently, the client's viral load has begun to increase rather than decrease despite his adherence to the HIV drug regimen. What should the nurse do first while taking the client's history upon admission to the hospital?
- A. Determine if the client attends a support group weekly.
- B. Hold all antidepressant medications until further notice.
- C. Ask the client if he takes St. John's Wort routinely.
- D. Have the client describe any recent changes in mood.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse's top priority upon admission is to determine if the client has been taking St. John's Wort, an herbal preparation often used for depression. St. John's Wort can interact adversely with medications used to treat HIV infection, potentially explaining the rise in the viral load (C). Asking about attending support groups (A) or recent changes in mood (D) may provide valuable information about the client's depression but is not as critical as determining St. John's Wort use. Holding antidepressant medications (B) without assessing for potential interactions can be harmful to the client.
4. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The client asks how long it will take for the medication to start working. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. You should start feeling better within a few days.
- B. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you notice an improvement.
- C. Buspirone works immediately to reduce anxiety symptoms.
- D. You will need to take this medication for at least a year.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Buspirone typically takes 2 to 4 weeks to become fully effective. It is essential to inform the client that it may take some time before they notice an improvement. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone does not work immediately. Choice C is also incorrect as buspirone does not provide immediate relief. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests a longer duration of treatment than necessary.
5. A homeless person who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder is admitted to the mental health unit. Which laboratory finding obtained on admission is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone level
- B. Elevated liver function profile
- C. Increased white blood cell count
- D. Decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone level. Hyperthyroidism causes an increased level of serum thyroid hormones (T3 and T4), which inhibit the release of TSH. In this case, a decreased TSH level can indicate hyperthyroidism, which can present with manic behavior. Elevated liver function profile (B) is not directly related to the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Increased white blood cell count (C) typically indicates an infection or inflammation, not directly related to the manic phase. Decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels (D) may suggest anemia but are not as crucial in the context of a manic phase of bipolar disorder.
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