HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed alprazolam. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Alprazolam, a medication commonly used to treat anxiety disorders, can cause drowsiness as a common side effect. Clients should be advised not to drive or operate heavy machinery until they know how the medication affects them to ensure their safety.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed ferric citrate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Constipation
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Nausea
- D. Hyperphosphatemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed ferric citrate, the nurse should monitor for constipation as a potential side effect. Ferric citrate can lead to constipation due to its effects on the gastrointestinal system, causing a decrease in bowel movements. It is essential for the nurse to assess and manage constipation promptly to prevent complications and ensure the client's comfort and well-being. Monitoring bowel movements, providing adequate hydration, and recommending dietary interventions can help alleviate constipation in clients taking ferric citrate. Diarrhea, nausea, and hyperphosphatemia are not typically associated with the use of ferric citrate in clients with chronic kidney disease.
3. A client with a history of angina is prescribed amlodipine. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor the client for which adverse effect?
- A. Headache
- B. Peripheral edema
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, commonly causes peripheral edema as an adverse effect. This is due to its vasodilation effects on blood vessels, leading to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial to assess the client's response to amlodipine and ensure timely intervention if needed.
4. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed atenolol, a beta-blocker medication used to treat hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as a potential side effect. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, and one common adverse effect is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because atenolol typically does not cause tachycardia, hypotension, or hyperglycemia as primary side effects. Instead, bradycardia is a common concern due to the drug's mechanism of action in reducing heart rate.
5. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed diazepam. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct. Diazepam, a medication commonly used to treat anxiety disorders, can lead to drowsiness as a potential side effect. It is important for clients taking diazepam to be cautious about activities that require alertness, such as driving, due to the risk of drowsiness associated with this medication. Choice B, dry mouth, is not typically associated with diazepam use. Choice C, nausea, is less common as a side effect of diazepam compared to drowsiness. Choice D, headache, is also less common and typically not a significant side effect of diazepam.
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