a client taking long term steroids also has ranitidine prescribed the nurse provides which explanation as to why these drugs are given together
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Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023

1. A client taking long-term steroids also has ranitidine prescribed. The nurse provides which explanation as to why these drugs are given together?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ranitidine is prescribed with long-term steroids to reduce the risk of ulcers associated with steroid therapy. Although steroids can increase the risk of ulcers due to their effect on the gastrointestinal system, ranitidine works by reducing stomach acid production, thus helping to prevent ulcer formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as ranitidine is not given to decrease the risk of infection, reduce blood sugar elevations, or reduce sodium retention associated with steroid usage.

2. A practical nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving theophylline. Which symptom indicates that the client may be experiencing theophylline toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tremors are a common symptom of theophylline toxicity. Other symptoms that may indicate theophylline toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and seizures. Bradycardia, constipation, and hypotension are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client closely for these signs of toxicity and report them promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed lanthanum carbonate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lanthanum carbonate is prescribed in chronic kidney disease to bind dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract. This action can lead to decreased phosphorus absorption and potential hypercalcemia due to the increased serum calcium levels. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia, such as confusion, fatigue, and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lanthanum carbonate's mechanism of action does not lead to hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypokalemia.

4. Prior to administering an oral dose of methylprednisolone, what is most important for the nurse to do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering methylprednisolone with food or milk is important as it can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects associated with the medication. This practice is commonly recommended to minimize stomach upset and irritation that may occur when taking methylprednisolone on an empty stomach. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to provide the medication with a glass of milk to enhance patient comfort and adherence to the treatment regimen. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication in the question stem that suggests a need to notify the healthcare provider before administering the medication with food or milk. Choice C is incorrect because tapering the drug dose per protocol is not the immediate action needed prior to administering the first dose of methylprednisolone. Choice D is irrelevant to the administration of methylprednisolone and not the most important action to take before giving the medication.

5. A client with hypertension is prescribed valsartan. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker that can cause hypotension as a side effect by dilating blood vessels. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to prevent complications related to low blood pressure. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect because valsartan typically does not cause an increase in heart rate. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not a common side effect of valsartan. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is also unlikely with valsartan use.

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Escitalopram is prescribed for a 16-year-old adolescent client who is clinically depressed. Five days later, the parent tells the practical nurse (PN) that the drug is not working because their child is not feeling any better. Which explanation should the PN provide?
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