a client taking long term steroids also has ranitidine prescribed the nurse provides which explanation as to why these drugs are given together
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HESI LPN

Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023

1. A client taking long-term steroids also has ranitidine prescribed. The nurse provides which explanation as to why these drugs are given together?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ranitidine is prescribed with long-term steroids to reduce the risk of ulcers associated with steroid therapy. Although steroids can increase the risk of ulcers due to their effect on the gastrointestinal system, ranitidine works by reducing stomach acid production, thus helping to prevent ulcer formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as ranitidine is not given to decrease the risk of infection, reduce blood sugar elevations, or reduce sodium retention associated with steroid usage.

2. A client has been taking simvastatin for 3 days and calls the nurse at the clinic to report extreme muscle tenderness and pain. Which is the most appropriate action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Extreme muscle tenderness and pain in a client taking simvastatin could indicate rhabdomyolysis, a serious condition. Promptly notifying the health care provider is crucial to evaluate and manage this potential medical emergency. Reviewing the medication with the client may not address the urgency of the situation. Advising the client to avoid grapefruit juice is not directly related to the client's current symptoms. Reminding the client to limit physical activity until evaluated by the health care provider is not appropriate as the client's symptoms should be assessed by a professional first.

3. A postoperative client has a prescription for ketorolac 30mg IV q6h. Which response demonstrates that therapeutic levels of the medication have been achieved?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to perform a pain assessment using a numeric scale. Ketorolac is an NSAID prescribed for pain relief. Monitoring pain levels is crucial to evaluate the therapeutic effectiveness of the medication. Pain assessment helps determine if the medication is providing adequate pain relief, indicating that therapeutic levels have been achieved.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential adverse effect to monitor for when a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide is hypoglycemia. Glyburide can lead to hypoglycemia, particularly in individuals who do not eat regularly, by stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas, which can lower blood sugar levels. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as confusion, sweating, and palpitations, to prevent complications and provide timely interventions.

5. A client with a history of angina is prescribed amlodipine. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor the client for which adverse effect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, commonly causes peripheral edema as an adverse effect. This is due to its vasodilation effects on blood vessels, leading to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial to assess the client's response to amlodipine and ensure timely intervention if needed.

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