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Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023
1. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed topiramate. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Cognitive impairment
- B. Weight gain
- C. Liver toxicity
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct. Topiramate is associated with cognitive impairment as an adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's cognitive function while on this medication to assess for any signs of cognitive decline or impairment. Choice B, weight gain, is incorrect as topiramate is actually associated with weight loss rather than weight gain. Choice C, liver toxicity, is also incorrect as topiramate is not known to cause liver toxicity. Choice D, weight loss, is not the correct answer as topiramate is not associated with weight gain.
2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed tofacitinib. What should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Avoid live vaccines while taking this medication.
- B. Take this medication with food to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
- C. Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider.
- D. Avoid sunlight while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tofacitinib is an immunosuppressive medication used in rheumatoid arthritis. Patients taking tofacitinib should avoid live vaccines because the medication can weaken the immune system, making live vaccines potentially harmful. It is essential to educate the client on this to prevent any complications related to live vaccines during their treatment.
3. The patient is prescribed cimetidine (Tagamet) orally. What should the nurse consider about administering this drug?
- A. Administer the drug with the first bite of food
- B. Administer the drug immediately after meals
- C. Administer the drug 30 minutes after meals
- D. Administer the drug 30 minutes before meals
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cimetidine is best absorbed when taken 30 minutes before meals to decrease stomach acid. Administering it before meals allows for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because administering cimetidine with food, immediately after meals, or 30 minutes after meals may not provide the best conditions for absorption. Taking it before meals ensures that the drug is absorbed properly and can exert its intended effects.
4. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Bleeding
- B. Bruising
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works to prevent blood clots, but it can also increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from the gums. Prompt identification and management of bleeding are crucial to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while bruising and other symptoms can occur as a result of bleeding, they are not the primary side effect to monitor for with clopidogrel. Nausea and headache are less commonly associated with clopidogrel use compared to bleeding.
5. A client is receiving heparin to treat a deep vein thrombosis. The nurse should monitor which laboratory result to assist in evaluating the efficacy of the drug?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Prothrombin time
- C. Partial thromboplastin time
- D. Serum levels of protamine sulfate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the partial thromboplastin time to evaluate the efficacy of heparin. Partial thromboplastin time reflects the anticoagulant effect of heparin by measuring the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. Platelet count assesses platelet levels and is not specific to heparin efficacy. Prothrombin time is used to monitor warfarin therapy. Serum levels of protamine sulfate are not used to evaluate the efficacy of heparin.
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