a male client receives a scopolamine transdermal patch 2 hours before surgery four hours after surgery the client tells the nurse that he is experienc
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Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023

1. A male client receives a scopolamine transdermal patch 2 hours before surgery. Four hours after surgery, the client tells the nurse that he is experiencing pain and asks why the patch is not working. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Scopolamine is not a pain medication; it is commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting, particularly in surgical settings. It works on the central nervous system to help control these symptoms, not to relieve pain. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to explain to the client that the medication is not intended to relieve pain but rather to manage other specific symptoms. Checking the correct placement of the patch is also important to ensure proper administration, but addressing the misconception about the medication's purpose is the priority in this scenario. Offering to apply a new patch would not address the client's pain as scopolamine is not meant for pain relief. Advising the client that the effects have worn off is inaccurate because the medication is not used for pain management.

2. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed atenolol, a beta-blocker medication used to treat hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as a potential side effect. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, and one common adverse effect is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because atenolol typically does not cause tachycardia, hypotension, or hyperglycemia as primary side effects. Instead, bradycardia is a common concern due to the drug's mechanism of action in reducing heart rate.

3. The practical nurse administers lactulose to a client. Which client outcome would indicate a therapeutic response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lactulose is a type of laxative that works by preventing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, leading to increased water absorption in the stool and softening of the stool. The therapeutic response to lactulose is indicated by the passage of two to three soft stools per day, showing that the medication is effectively promoting bowel movements.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed edoxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Edoxaban is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting clot formation, thereby increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or gastrointestinal bleeding, to prevent potential complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because edoxaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding or affect the risk of infection; its primary concern is the potential for bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties.

5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed adalimumab. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed adalimumab, which is an immunosuppressant medication, is to avoid live vaccines. Adalimumab can weaken the immune system, making live vaccines potentially harmful. It is essential to educate the client on this to prevent complications and ensure the effectiveness of the treatment.

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The patient is prescribed cimetidine (Tagamet) orally. What should the nurse consider about administering this drug?
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