Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a patient about the side effects of a new medication, which teaching method is most effective?

• A. Providing a written pamphlet
• B. Giving verbal instructions only
• C. Demonstrating how to take the medication
• D. Using a combination of verbal, written, and demonstration methods

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most effective teaching method when educating a patient about the side effects of a new medication is to use a combination of verbal, written, and demonstration methods. This comprehensive approach ensures that the patient receives information through multiple channels, catering to different learning styles. Verbal instructions allow for direct communication, written materials provide a reference for the patient to review later, and demonstrations offer a visual aid that can enhance understanding. Providing a combination of these methods increases the likelihood of the patient retaining and comprehending the information effectively. Choices A, B, and C are less effective as they do not encompass the benefits of utilizing multiple teaching modalities.

2. What is the best thing to say to a patient scheduled for cataract surgery who is concerned that the physician works on the correct eye?

• A. You are wearing an ID bracelet that will let the medical team know which eye to work on.
• B. When you are taken to the surgery area, the medical staff will confirm which eye needs the surgery.
• C. The surgeon will mark the correct eye before the cataract surgery based on your medical records.
• D. You will wear an ID bracelet, and the nurse will verify the eye scheduled for surgery by comparing it with your records and marking it with a permanent marker.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response reassures the patient by explaining the process of verifying and marking the correct eye, a safety measure to prevent wrong-site surgery, directly addressing the patient’s concern. Choice A is close but implies the ID bracelet alone determines the correct eye, missing the verification process. Choice B talks about confirmation but lacks details about marking the correct eye. Choice C mentions the surgeon's record but does not specify the direct verification and marking process, unlike Choice D.

3. The PN and UAP enter a client's room and find the client lying on the bed. The PN determines that the client is unresponsive. Which instruction should the PN give the UAP first?

• A. Obtain emergency help
• B. Feel for a carotid pulse
• C. Bring a glucometer to the room
• D. Check the blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the UAP to obtain emergency help first. When a client is unresponsive, it could indicate a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Ensuring emergency help is on the way is the priority to address the potentially critical situation. Feeling for a carotid pulse, bringing a glucometer, or checking the blood pressure are important assessments but should come after taking steps to secure immediate assistance.

4. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?

• A. Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin
• B. Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily
• C. Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
• D. Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.

5. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

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