Nursing Elites

1. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse’s decision to hold the client’s scheduled antihypertensive medication?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has led to diuresis and lowered the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.
• D. The synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client experiences syncope due to a significant drop in blood pressure after receiving multiple antihypertensive medications, the additive effect of these medications can cause the blood pressure to drop excessively. This additive effect can lead to hypotension, which is why the nurse decided to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication. Choices A, B, and D provide incorrect rationales. Choice A mentions diuresis, which is not directly related to the drop in blood pressure due to additive medication effects. Choice B refers to an antagonistic interaction reducing effectiveness, which is not applicable in this scenario. Choice D talks about a synergistic effect leading to drug toxicity, which is not the cause of the sudden drop in blood pressure observed in the client.

2. A female client on the mental health unit tells the nurse that her roommate is sitting on the bathroom floor with superficial cuts on her wrists. The nurse cleans and assesses the client’s wrists and asks what happened. She doesn’t respond. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Find supplies to put a dressing on the client’s wrists
• B. Take the client to a room for supervision by staff
• C. Call the healthcare provider to report the client’s behavior
• D. Go find a staff member to stay in the room with the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse's priority is to ensure the safety and supervision of the client. Moving the client to a room for direct supervision by staff is crucial to prevent further harm and provide immediate support. While cleaning and assessing the client's wrists are important, ensuring ongoing supervision is vital in this scenario. Calling the healthcare provider to report the behavior may be necessary but is not the immediate action required. Finding supplies to dress the client's wrists is important but not as urgent as ensuring constant supervision by staff.

3. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for antibiotic treatment of a leg ulcer. Which signs and symptoms, indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Visual disturbances
• C. Presence of uremic frost
• D. Decreased mentation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs and symptoms indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) include increased heart rate, visual disturbances, and decreased mentation. These symptoms are often associated with HHNS due to the high blood glucose levels. Uremic frost, a sign of advanced kidney disease, is not typically associated with HHNS. Therefore, choices B and D are incorrect. However, choice C, 'Presence of uremic frost,' is incorrect as it is not typically associated with HHNS.

4. A client with diabetic peripheral neuropathy has been taking pregabalin for 4 days. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Granulating tissue in foot ulcer
• B. Full volume of pedal pulse
• C. Reduced level of pain
• D. Improved visual activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Reduced level of pain.' Pregabalin is used to manage neuropathic pain, so a reduction in pain indicates the medication's effectiveness in this case. Granulating tissue in a foot ulcer and the full volume of a pedal pulse are not direct indicators of pregabalin's effectiveness in managing neuropathic pain. Improved visual activity is not related to the effects of pregabalin in diabetic peripheral neuropathy.

5. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital. The client is experiencing difficulty breathing and is very anxious. The nurse notes that the client’s oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position
• B. Administer supplemental oxygen
• C. Perform a thorough respiratory assessment
• D. Start an IV infusion of normal saline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering supplemental oxygen is the first priority to address low oxygen saturation and ease breathing. In a client with COPD experiencing difficulty breathing and anxiety with oxygen saturation at 88%, providing supplemental oxygen takes precedence over other actions. Placing the client in a high Fowler’s position may help with breathing but does not address the immediate need for increased oxygenation. Performing a thorough respiratory assessment is important but should come after stabilizing the client's oxygen levels. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline is not the priority in this situation and does not directly address the client's respiratory distress.

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