HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Test Bank
1. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse’s decision to hold the client’s scheduled antihypertensive medication?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has led to diuresis and lowered the blood pressure.
- B. The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness.
- C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.
- D. The synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client experiences syncope due to a significant drop in blood pressure after receiving multiple antihypertensive medications, the additive effect of these medications can cause the blood pressure to drop excessively. This additive effect can lead to hypotension, which is why the nurse decided to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication. Choices A, B, and D provide incorrect rationales. Choice A mentions diuresis, which is not directly related to the drop in blood pressure due to additive medication effects. Choice B refers to an antagonistic interaction reducing effectiveness, which is not applicable in this scenario. Choice D talks about a synergistic effect leading to drug toxicity, which is not the cause of the sudden drop in blood pressure observed in the client.
2. A client with complaints of shortness of breath and abdominal pain 1 week after bariatric surgery is admitted for follow-up evaluation. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Rectal temperature of 101°F
- B. Complaints of left shoulder pain
- C. Blood pressure of 88/50 mmHg
- D. Sustained sinus tachycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A blood pressure of 88/50 mmHg indicates possible hypovolemia or shock, which requires immediate attention. Hypotension can be a sign of decreased perfusion to vital organs, potentially leading to organ failure. The other options, such as a rectal temperature of 101°F, complaints of left shoulder pain, or sustained sinus tachycardia, while important, do not present the same level of immediate threat to the client's well-being as a critically low blood pressure.
3. To manage the client’s constipation, which suggestions should the nurse provide? (Select all that apply)
- A. Decrease laxative use to every other day and use oil retention enemas as needed.
- B. Include oatmeal with stewed prunes for breakfast as often as possible.
- C. Increase fluid intake by keeping a water glass next to the recliner.
- D. Recommend seeking help with regular shopping and meal preparation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Increasing fluid intake is essential for managing constipation. Adequate hydration helps soften stool and promotes bowel movements. Choices A and B are incorrect as decreasing laxative use without medical advice and suggesting specific foods like oatmeal with stewed prunes may not be suitable for every individual with constipation. Choice D is also incorrect as while seeking help with meal preparation can indirectly aid in managing constipation, the immediate need is to increase fluid intake.
4. A high school football player comes to the clinic complaining of severe acne. The mother reports recent behavior changes, including irritability and suspiciousness of friends. The nurse’s assessment reveals an elevated blood pressure. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Encourage the client to see a dermatologist
- B. Refer the adolescent to a substance abuse program
- C. Suggest a low-salt, low-fat, and caffeine-free diet
- D. Inquire about a possible use of anabolic steroids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the high school football player presenting with severe acne, behavior changes, elevated blood pressure, and suspicion of friends suggests the possible use of anabolic steroids. Anabolic steroid use can lead to such symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should first inquire about the possible use of anabolic steroids to address the root cause of the presenting issues. Encouraging the client to see a dermatologist (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the underlying cause is crucial first. Referring the adolescent to a substance abuse program (Choice B) is premature without confirming steroid use. Suggesting a low-salt, low-fat, and caffeine-free diet (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation where a serious issue like anabolic steroid use needs immediate attention.
5. The healthcare provider prescribed furosemide for a 4-year-old child with a ventricular septal defect. Which outcome indicates to the nurse that this pharmacological intervention was effective?
- A. Urine specific gravity changing from 1.021 to 1.031
- B. Daily weight decrease of 2 pounds (0.9 kg)
- C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) increasing from 8 to 12 mg/dl (2.9 to 4.3)
- D. Urinary output decreasing by 5 ml/hour
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A daily weight decrease of 2 pounds (0.9 kg) is the most appropriate outcome to indicate the effectiveness of furosemide in a child with a ventricular septal defect. Furosemide is a diuretic medication that helps reduce fluid retention. Therefore, a decrease in weight reflects a reduction in fluid volume, which is the desired effect of furosemide. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because changes in urine specific gravity, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels, and urinary output do not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in this context.
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