Nursing Elites

1. A client who is scheduled to have surgery in two hours tells the nurse, 'My doctor was here and used a lot of big words about the surgery, then asked me to sign a paper.' What action should the nurse take?

• A. Reassure the client that pre-surgery anxiety is a normal experience
• B. Explain the surgery in clear terms that the client can understand
• C. Call the surgeon back to clarify the information with the client
• D. Redirect the client’s thoughts by teaching relaxation techniques

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to explain the surgery to the client in clear terms that they can understand. This will help alleviate the client's anxiety and ensure they are well-informed about the procedure they are about to undergo. Choice A is incorrect because while reassurance is important, it does not address the client's specific concern about understanding the surgery. Choice C is not the initial step; the nurse should first attempt to clarify the information themselves. Choice D is not the priority when the client is seeking clarification about the surgery.

2. A new mother asks the nurse if the newborn infant has an infection because the healthcare provider prescribed a blood test called the TORCH screen test. Which response should the nurse offer to the mother's inquiry?

• A. Rising titers identify the etiology of certain neuro-sensory birth defects
• B. The screen determines the risk for inherited anomalies in the newborn
• C. The test identifies the correct antibiotic to give the newborn for an infection
• D. Exposure to infections that can cross the placenta cause a positive antibody titer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The TORCH screen test is used to detect infections that can affect the newborn by showing if there was exposure to these infections. Choice A is incorrect because the TORCH screen test is not specifically for identifying the etiology of neuro-sensory birth defects. Choice B is incorrect because the test does not determine the risk for inherited anomalies. Choice C is incorrect because the test is not used to identify the correct antibiotic for an infection, but rather to detect infections that may have affected the newborn.

3. When gathering subjective data from a client, what intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Listen attentively
• B. Establish rapport
• C. List problems
• D. Clarify inferences

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Establishing rapport is the initial step the nurse should take when gathering subjective data from a client. Building trust and a good relationship with the client creates an environment where the client feels comfortable sharing accurate and honest information. Listening attentively is important but should come after rapport is established to enhance active listening. Listing problems and clarifying inferences are actions that occur later in the assessment process, after the nurse has established a good rapport and obtained a comprehensive understanding of the client's perspective. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes potassium chloride 25 mEq in 500 ml D5W to infuse over 6 hours. The available 20 ml vial of potassium chloride is labeled '10 mEq/5 ml.' How many ml of potassium chloride should the nurse add to the IV fluid?

• A. 12.5
• B. 5
• C. 10
• D. 20

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prepare 25 mEq of potassium chloride for the infusion, the nurse should add 5 ml of the 10 mEq/5 ml solution. This concentration provides the required amount of potassium chloride without exceeding the needed volume. Choice A would result in 12.5 mEq, which exceeds the prescribed amount. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the vial concentration.

5. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?

• A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
• B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
• C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
• D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.

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