HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2024
1. A client who is scheduled to have surgery in two hours tells the nurse, 'My doctor was here and used a lot of big words about the surgery, then asked me to sign a paper.' What action should the nurse take?
- A. Reassure the client that pre-surgery anxiety is a normal experience
- B. Explain the surgery in clear terms that the client can understand
- C. Call the surgeon back to clarify the information with the client
- D. Redirect the client’s thoughts by teaching relaxation techniques
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to explain the surgery to the client in clear terms that they can understand. This will help alleviate the client's anxiety and ensure they are well-informed about the procedure they are about to undergo. Choice A is incorrect because while reassurance is important, it does not address the client's specific concern about understanding the surgery. Choice C is not the initial step; the nurse should first attempt to clarify the information themselves. Choice D is not the priority when the client is seeking clarification about the surgery.
2. While assessing a client four hours post-thoracentesis, the nurse is unable to auscultate breath sounds on the right side of the chest. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Instruct the client to perform cough and deep breathing exercises
- B. Assess the client’s vital signs and respiratory effort
- C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula according to the PNR protocol
- D. Document assessment findings in the client’s medical record
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the client’s vital signs and respiratory effort. It is crucial to promptly detect any immediate complications or changes in the client's condition. Instructing cough and deep breathing exercises (choice A) can be considered after further assessment. Administering oxygen (choice C) should be based on assessment findings and healthcare provider's orders. While documenting the findings (choice D) is essential, it should not be the first action when a potential issue with breath sounds is detected.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection to a client. What is the most appropriate site to use for an IM injection in an adult?
- A. Dorsal gluteal muscle
- B. Vastus lateralis muscle
- C. Rectus femoris muscle
- D. Deltoid muscle
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vastus lateralis muscle. The vastus lateralis muscle is a recommended site for IM injections in adults due to its size and accessibility. The dorsal gluteal muscle is not recommended for IM injections in adults due to the proximity to major nerves and blood vessels, increasing the risk of injury. The rectus femoris muscle is not a common site for IM injections in adults. The deltoid muscle is typically used for IM injections in small-volume medications or vaccines, especially in adults.
4. The nurse is demonstrating wound care to a client following abdominal surgery. In what order should the nurse teach the technique?
- A. Remove old dressing using clean gloves. Discard gloves with old dressing
- B. Moisten sterile gauze with normal saline. Clean wound from least contaminated area to most contaminated area
- C. Apply sterile gauze dressing to wound area
- D. Secure dressing with tape
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct order ensures proper aseptic technique and wound care to prevent infection. The first step is to remove the old dressing using clean gloves to prevent contamination. Discarding the gloves with the old dressing helps maintain cleanliness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because cleaning the wound, applying a new dressing, and securing it should come after removing the old dressing to maintain asepsis and prevent infection.
5. A client is admitted to a medical unit with the diagnosis of gastritis and chronic heavy alcohol abuse. What should the nurse administer to prevent the development of Wernicke's syndrome?
- A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
- B. Famotidine (Pepcid)
- C. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
- D. Atenolol (Tenormin)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Thiamine supplementation is critical in preventing Wernicke's syndrome, especially in clients with chronic alcohol use. Wernicke's syndrome is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome. Famotidine is an H2 blocker used to reduce stomach acid production but does not prevent Wernicke's syndrome. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and angina, not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome.
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