Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider explains through an interpreter the risks and benefits of a scheduled surgical procedure to a non-English speaking female client. The client gives verbal consent, and the healthcare provider leaves, instructing the nurse to witness the signature on the consent form. The client and interpreter then speak together in the foreign language for an additional 2 minutes until the interpreter concludes, 'She says it is OK.' What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Clarify the client’s consent through the use of gestures and simple terms
• B. Have the interpreter co-sign the consent to validate the client's understanding
• C. Ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion
• D. Have the client sign the consent form and the nurse witness the signature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Having the interpreter co-sign the consent form is the most appropriate action in this scenario. By having the interpreter co-sign, it ensures an additional layer of verification of the client's understanding and consent, which is crucial when language barriers exist. This step adds a level of confirmation to safeguard that the client's consent is both valid and well-informed. Option A is not sufficient as gestures and simple terms may not fully clarify the client's understanding, especially for complex medical procedures. Option C is unnecessary since the interpreter has already confirmed the client's consent. Option D does not involve the interpreter in validating the client's understanding, which is essential in this situation to ensure effective communication and comprehension between the client and the healthcare team.

2. What should the nurse monitor for during the IV infusion of vasopressin (Pitressin) in a client with bleeding esophageal varices?

• A. Vasodilatation of the extremities
• B. Chest pain and dysrhythmia
• C. Hypotension and tachycardia
• D. Decreasing GI cramping and nausea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the IV infusion of vasopressin in a client with bleeding esophageal varices, the nurse should monitor for chest pain and dysrhythmia. Vasopressin is a vasoconstrictor that can cause cardiovascular effects, including chest pain and dysrhythmias. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as vasopressin is not expected to cause vasodilatation of the extremities, hypotension, tachycardia, or improvements in GI symptoms such as cramping and nausea.

3. A postoperative client returns to the nursing unit following a ureterolithotomy via a flank incision. Which potential nursing problem has the highest priority when planning nursing care for this client?

• A. Ineffective airway clearance
• B. Altered nutrition less than body requirements
• C. Fluid volume excess
• D. Activity intolerance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the highest priority nursing problem for the postoperative client following a ureterolithotomy via a flank incision is ineffective airway clearance. After surgery, there is a risk of airway obstruction due to factors like anesthesia, positioning during surgery, or the presence of secretions. Maintaining a clear airway is crucial to prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis or pneumonia. Altered nutrition, fluid volume excess, and activity intolerance are important considerations but are secondary to the immediate threat of compromised airway clearance in the postoperative period.

4. A young adult client was admitted 36 hours ago for a head injury that occurred as a result of a motorcycle accident. In the last 4 hours, the client’s urine output has increased to over 200 ml/hour. Before reporting the finding to the healthcare provider, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Obtain capillary blood samples for glucose every 2 hours
• B. Measure oral secretions suctioned during the last 4 hours
• C. Evaluate the urine osmolality and serum osmolality values
• D. Obtain blood pressure and assess for dependent edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the urine osmolality and serum osmolality values. The increased urine output following a head injury could indicate diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive urination and extreme thirst. Evaluating osmolality is crucial for diagnosing diabetes insipidus. Choice A is incorrect because obtaining capillary blood samples for glucose every 2 hours is not the priority in this situation. Choice B is irrelevant to the client's current symptom of increased urine output. Choice D is also not the most appropriate intervention as the focus should be on assessing for a potential endocrine issue related to the increased urine output.

5. To evaluate the client's therapeutic response to lactulose for signs of hepatic encephalopathy, which assessment should the nurse obtain?

• A. Level of consciousness
• B. Percussion of abdomen
• C. Serum electrolytes
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Level of consciousness. Monitoring the client's level of consciousness is essential in evaluating the effectiveness of lactulose in treating hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose helps reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, thereby improving the client's mental status. Assessing the client's level of consciousness helps determine if the medication is effectively managing hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices B, percussion of the abdomen, and D, blood glucose, are not directly related to evaluating the therapeutic response to lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Choice C, serum electrolytes, while important in overall patient care, is not the primary assessment to determine lactulose's effectiveness in treating hepatic encephalopathy.

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