HESI LPN
HESI Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing
1. While assessing a client with degenerative joint disease, the nurse observes Heberden's nodes, large prominences on the client's fingers that are reddened. The client reports that the nodes are painful. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Review the client's dietary intake of high protein foods
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding immediately
- C. Discuss approaches to chronic pain control with the client
- D. Assess the client's radial pulses and capillary refill time
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Discussing approaches to chronic pain control is the most appropriate action in this situation as it helps the client manage the chronic pain associated with Heberden's nodes. Reviewing the client's dietary intake of high protein foods (Choice A) is not directly related to managing the pain caused by Heberden's nodes. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice B) may not be necessary unless there are urgent complications. Assessing the client's radial pulses and capillary refill time (Choice D) is important but not the priority in addressing the client's reported pain and the presence of Heberden's nodes.
2. A client who took a camping vacation two weeks ago in a country with a tropical climate comes to the clinic describing vague symptoms and diarrhea for the past week. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the HCP?
- A. Weakness and fatigue
- B. Intestinal cramping
- C. Weight loss
- D. Jaundiced sclera
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most important finding to report to the healthcare provider is a jaundiced sclera. Jaundice suggests liver involvement, which can be a sign of a serious underlying condition. Weakness and fatigue, intestinal cramping, and weight loss are important symptoms, but jaundice indicates a more urgent issue that needs immediate attention.
3. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Gingival hyperplasia
- C. Weight gain
- D. Blurred vision
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, which is an overgrowth of gum tissue. This side effect is important to report to the healthcare provider because it can lead to oral health problems. Choice A, drowsiness, is a common side effect of many antiepileptic drugs but is not specific to phenytoin. Choice C, weight gain, is not a typical side effect of phenytoin. Choice D, blurred vision, is not a common side effect of phenytoin; it is more commonly associated with other medications.
4. A young adult male is admitted to the intensive care unit with multiple rib fractures and severe pulmonary contusions after falling 20 feet from a rooftop. The Chest X-ray suggests acute Respiratory distress Syndrome. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the Nurse?
- A. Apical pulse 58 bpm.
- B. Core body temperature 100.8°F.
- C. Tachypnea with dyspnea.
- D. Multiple bruises over the chest area.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a patient with multiple rib fractures, severe pulmonary contusions, and possible acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), tachypnea (rapid breathing) with dyspnea (shortness of breath) is a critical sign of respiratory distress that warrants immediate intervention by the nurse. Tachypnea and dyspnea indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, which can lead to respiratory failure if not addressed promptly. The other options, such as apical pulse rate, core body temperature, and bruises over the chest area, are important assessments but do not directly indicate the immediate need for intervention in a patient with respiratory distress.
5. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
- C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
- D. Calculate total intake and output.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.
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