Nursing Elites

1. While assessing a client with degenerative joint disease, the nurse observes Heberden's nodes, large prominences on the client's fingers that are reddened. The client reports that the nodes are painful. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Review the client's dietary intake of high protein foods
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding immediately
• C. Discuss approaches to chronic pain control with the client
• D. Assess the client's radial pulses and capillary refill time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Discussing approaches to chronic pain control is the most appropriate action in this situation as it helps the client manage the chronic pain associated with Heberden's nodes. Reviewing the client's dietary intake of high protein foods (Choice A) is not directly related to managing the pain caused by Heberden's nodes. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice B) may not be necessary unless there are urgent complications. Assessing the client's radial pulses and capillary refill time (Choice D) is important but not the priority in addressing the client's reported pain and the presence of Heberden's nodes.

2. A client who is receiving general anesthesia begins to demonstrate symptoms of malignant hyperthermia. Which intervention should the perioperative nurse prepare to implement first?

• A. Ensure patency of an indwelling catheter and measure hourly intake and output.
• B. Prepare for cessation of the anesthesia and the surgical procedure.
• C. Obtain specimens of ABGs and serum electrolytes.
• D. Initiate cooling measures using iced normal saline by nasogastric lavage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare for cessation of the anesthesia and the surgical procedure. Malignant hyperthermia is a severe reaction to certain medications used during general anesthesia. The immediate intervention to manage malignant hyperthermia is to stop the triggering agents, which include anesthesia and surgery. Ensuring patency of an indwelling catheter and measuring intake and output, obtaining specimens of ABGs and serum electrolytes, and initiating cooling measures are important interventions but should follow the immediate action of stopping the anesthesia and surgery to address the life-threatening condition of malignant hyperthermia.

3. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

• A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
• B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
• C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
• D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

4. A client with Addison's disease started taking hydrocortisone in a divided daily dose last week. It is most important for the nurse to monitor which serum laboratory value?

• A. Osmolarity
• B. Glucose
• C. Albumin
• D. Platelets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glucose. Hydrocortisone can lead to increased blood glucose levels, so monitoring glucose is crucial to assess for hyperglycemia, a common side effect of corticosteroid therapy. Monitoring osmolarity (choice A) is not typically indicated in this scenario. Albumin (choice C) and platelets (choice D) are not directly affected by hydrocortisone therapy and are not the primary focus of monitoring in this case.

5. Twelve hours following a unilateral total knee replacement, a client reports being unable to sleep because of severe incisional pain. What is the best initial nursing action?

• A. Administer a prescribed sedative.
• B. Reposition the client for comfort.
• C. Apply ice packs to the surgical site.
• D. Instruct the client in the use of the prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Instructing the client in the use of the PCA pump is the best initial nursing action for managing severe incisional pain after knee replacement surgery. The PCA pump allows the client to self-administer pain medication effectively, promoting better pain management. Administering a sedative may mask the pain temporarily but doesn't address the root cause. Repositioning the client for comfort or applying ice packs may provide some relief but doesn't address the need for effective pain control as the PCA pump does.

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