an adult client is admitted with aids and oral candidiasis manifested by several painful mouth ulcers the nurse delegate oral care to the unlicensed a
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1. An adult client is admitted with AIDS and oral candidiasis manifested by several painful mouth ulcers. The nurse delegates oral care to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) and discusses how to assist the client. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Provide a soft bristle brush for the client to use during oral care.' Providing a soft bristle brush helps reduce trauma to the oral mucosa and assists in oral care. Choice A is incorrect because oral care can be safely delegated to UAPs. Choice C is wrong as alcohol-based mouthwash can further irritate the ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as applying an antifungal cream directly to the mouth ulcers is not the standard treatment for oral candidiasis.

2. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being treated with warfarin. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Limit intake of foods high in vitamin K'. Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication commonly used to treat conditions like deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Patients on warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods and be monitored closely. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding foods high in vitamin C, increasing intake of green leafy vegetables, and avoiding dairy products are not essential dietary instructions for a client on warfarin therapy for DVT.

3. A client who is receiving general anesthesia begins to demonstrate symptoms of malignant hyperthermia. Which intervention should the perioperative nurse prepare to implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare for cessation of the anesthesia and the surgical procedure. Malignant hyperthermia is a severe reaction to certain medications used during general anesthesia. The immediate intervention to manage malignant hyperthermia is to stop the triggering agents, which include anesthesia and surgery. Ensuring patency of an indwelling catheter and measuring intake and output, obtaining specimens of ABGs and serum electrolytes, and initiating cooling measures are important interventions but should follow the immediate action of stopping the anesthesia and surgery to address the life-threatening condition of malignant hyperthermia.

4. When conducting a class for parents about sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), the nurse instructs the class that the infant should be placed in which position to sleep?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, supine. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends placing infants on their back, or supine, to sleep as it has been shown to reduce the risk of SIDS. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing infants on their right side, left side, or prone (on their stomach) respectively are not recommended sleeping positions due to the increased risk of SIDS associated with those positions.

5. The nurse empties the nasogastric suction collection canister of a client who had a bowel resection the previous day and notes that 1,000 mL of gastric secretions were collected in the last 4 hours. The nurse should assess the client for symptoms of which related problem?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic alkalosis. Loss of gastric secretions can lead to metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of hydrochloric acid. This can result in an increase in blood pH levels. Respiratory acidosis (choice A) is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, not related to the loss of gastric secretions. Hypoglycemia (choice C) is a low blood sugar level and is not directly related to the loss of gastric secretions. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is an elevated potassium level in the blood and is not typically associated with the loss of gastric secretions.

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