Nursing Elites

1. An adult client is admitted with AIDS and oral candidiasis manifested by several painful mouth ulcers. The nurse delegates oral care to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) and discusses how to assist the client. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?

• A. Assist with personal care, but leave oral care for the nurse to complete.
• B. Provide a soft bristle brush for the client to use during oral care.
• C. Use alcohol-based mouthwash to clean the ulcers.
• D. Apply an antifungal cream to the mouth ulcers.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Provide a soft bristle brush for the client to use during oral care.' Providing a soft bristle brush helps reduce trauma to the oral mucosa and assists in oral care. Choice A is incorrect because oral care can be safely delegated to UAPs. Choice C is wrong as alcohol-based mouthwash can further irritate the ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as applying an antifungal cream directly to the mouth ulcers is not the standard treatment for oral candidiasis.

2. What information should the nurse include in the teaching plan of a client diagnosed with GERD?

• A. Sleep without using pillows
• B. Opt for five small meals throughout the day instead of three full meals with no snacks
• C. Minimize symptoms by wearing loose, comfortable clothing
• D. Engage in low-impact exercises like walking or swimming

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Minimize symptoms by wearing loose, comfortable clothing.' Wearing loose, comfortable clothing can help reduce pressure on the abdomen, which can alleviate GERD symptoms. Option A is incorrect as sleeping without using pillows is not a recommended practice for managing GERD. Option B is incorrect because it suggests adjusting food intake to five small meals throughout the day instead of three full meals with no snacks, which may not be suitable for everyone with GERD. Option D is incorrect as avoiding participation in any aerobic exercise program is not a standard recommendation for managing GERD; in fact, engaging in low-impact exercises like walking or swimming can be beneficial.

3. In planning nursing care for a bedfast client, which factor is most likely to contribute to the development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in an immobile client?

• A. Atherosclerotic plaque formation.
• B. Stasis of blood flow.
• C. Endothelial damage.
• D. Atherosclerotic vessel changes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stasis of blood flow. Stasis of blood flow in immobile clients increases the risk of DVT, as lack of movement can cause blood to pool and clot. Atherosclerotic plaque formation (choice A) and atherosclerotic vessel changes (choice D) are more related to arterial diseases rather than DVT. Endothelial damage (choice C) can contribute to the development of DVT, but in an immobile client, stasis of blood flow is the most significant factor.

4. While walking to the mailbox, an older adult male experiences sudden chest tightness and drives himself to the emergency department. When the client gets up to the desk of the triage nurse, he says his heart is pounding out of his chest as he clutches his chest and falls to the floor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Prepare for cardiac defibrillation.
• B. Apply cardiac monitor leads.
• C. Obtain troponin serum levels.
• D. Palpate the client’s artery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpating the client's artery is the priority intervention in this scenario because it helps determine if there is a pulse, which is crucial information in emergency situations like this. If the client is pulseless, immediate initiation of CPR is necessary. Applying cardiac monitor leads or obtaining troponin serum levels can wait until the presence of a pulse is confirmed. Cardiac defibrillation is not indicated without first assessing the client's pulse and cardiac rhythm.

5. A woman with chronic osteoarthritis is complaining of knee pain. Which pathophysiological process is contributing to her pain?

• A. Inflammation of the synovial membrane.
• B. Degeneration of the cartilage in the joint.
• C. Joint inflammation occurs when chondrocyte injury destroys joint cartilage, producing osteophytes.
• D. Formation of uric acid crystals in the joint space.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In osteoarthritis, the breakdown of cartilage in the joints leads to chondrocyte injury, which results in the destruction of joint cartilage and the production of osteophytes. This process causes joint inflammation and pain. Choice A is incorrect because osteoarthritis primarily involves the articular cartilage rather than the synovial membrane. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the degeneration of cartilage but does not explain the specific pathophysiological process contributing to pain in osteoarthritis. Choice D is incorrect as the formation of uric acid crystals is characteristic of gout, not osteoarthritis.

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