HESI LPN
HESI Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing
1. An adult client who received partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body in a house fire is admitted to the inpatient burn unit.
- A. Normal Saline
- B. Lactated Ringer’s
- C. 5% Dextrose in water
- D. 0.45% Sodium Chloride
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In burn patients, Lactated Ringer's solution is preferred over other options as it helps in restoring fluid and electrolyte balance effectively. Lactated Ringer's contains electrolytes (sodium, potassium, calcium) that closely mimic the body's natural composition, making it a suitable choice for fluid resuscitation in burn injuries. Normal Saline (Choice A) lacks electrolytes like potassium and calcium, which are essential in burn management. 5% Dextrose in water (Choice C) is a hypotonic solution and is not the ideal choice for fluid resuscitation in burn patients. 0.45% Sodium Chloride (Choice D) is a hypotonic solution mainly used for conditions requiring free water replacement rather than volume expansion needed in burn injuries.
2. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?
- A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
- B. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
- C. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible fat.
- D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.
3. An older female client has normal saline infusing at 45 ml/hour. She complains of pain at the insertion of the IV catheter. There is no redness or edema around the IV site. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Determine what IV medications have recently been administered.
- B. Slow the infusion rate.
- C. Apply a warm compress to the IV site.
- D. Discontinue the IV line and start a new one.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to determine what IV medications have recently been administered. This is important to identify if the pain at the IV site is related to a medication infusion. Slowing the infusion rate (choice B) may not address the underlying cause of the pain. Applying a warm compress (choice C) is not necessary since there is no redness or edema around the IV site. Discontinuing the IV line and starting a new one (choice D) is a drastic step and should not be the first action taken without investigating the cause of the pain.
4. A child has developed a diaper rash, and the parents are using zinc oxide to treat it. What does the nurse suggest to aid in the removal of the zinc oxide?
- A. Mild soap and water
- B. A cotton ball
- C. Mineral oil
- D. Alcohol swabs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To completely remove ointment, especially zinc oxide, mineral oil should be used. Mineral oil helps in gently breaking down and lifting the ointment without causing irritation. Mild soap and water (Choice A) may not be effective in completely removing zinc oxide. A cotton ball (Choice B) may not provide the necessary lubrication to aid in the removal process. Alcohol swabs (Choice D) can be harsh on the skin and are not recommended for this purpose.
5. Twelve hours following a unilateral total knee replacement, a client reports being unable to sleep because of severe incisional pain. What is the best initial nursing action?
- A. Administer a prescribed sedative.
- B. Reposition the client for comfort.
- C. Apply ice packs to the surgical site.
- D. Instruct the client in the use of the prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Instructing the client in the use of the PCA pump is the best initial nursing action for managing severe incisional pain after knee replacement surgery. The PCA pump allows the client to self-administer pain medication effectively, promoting better pain management. Administering a sedative may mask the pain temporarily but doesn't address the root cause. Repositioning the client for comfort or applying ice packs may provide some relief but doesn't address the need for effective pain control as the PCA pump does.
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