Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is known to cause peripheral edema as a potential adverse effect due to its vasodilatory properties. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema in patients taking amlodipine is crucial to identify and manage this side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because amlodipine is not associated with causing bradycardia, hypertension (as the patient already has hypertension), or increased appetite as adverse effects.

2. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed infliximab. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of infection
• B. Bone marrow suppression
• C. Hair loss
• D. Pancreatitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. Infliximab is known to increase the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs of infection in the client receiving infliximab to promptly address any potential complications and ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bone marrow suppression, hair loss, and pancreatitis are not typically associated with infliximab therapy. While these adverse effects can occur with other medications, the primary concern with infliximab is the increased risk of infection.

3. A client is prescribed cyclobenzaprine for muscle spasms. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which substance while taking this medication?

• A. Alcohol
• B. Caffeine
• C. Nicotine
• D. Dairy products

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcohol. When taking cyclobenzaprine, it is important to avoid alcohol as it can potentiate the central nervous system depressant effects of the medication. This interaction can lead to increased drowsiness, dizziness, and impaired coordination. Therefore, it is essential for the client to refrain from alcohol consumption while on cyclobenzaprine to prevent these adverse effects and ensure their safety. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because caffeine, nicotine, and dairy products do not have significant interactions with cyclobenzaprine. While caffeine and nicotine may have stimulant effects that could theoretically counteract some of the sedative effects of cyclobenzaprine, they are not contraindicated. Dairy products, on the other hand, do not interact with cyclobenzaprine and can be consumed safely.

4. A male client receives a scopolamine transdermal patch 2 hours before surgery. Four hours after surgery, the client tells the nurse that he is experiencing pain and asks why the patch is not working. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Advise the client that the effects of the medication have worn off
• B. Explain that the medication is not given to relieve pain
• C. Check for the correct placement of the patch on the client
• D. Offer to apply a new transdermal patch to address the pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Scopolamine is not a pain medication; it is commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting, particularly in surgical settings. It works on the central nervous system to help control these symptoms, not to relieve pain. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to explain to the client that the medication is not intended to relieve pain but rather to manage other specific symptoms. Checking the correct placement of the patch is also important to ensure proper administration, but addressing the misconception about the medication's purpose is the priority in this scenario. Offering to apply a new patch would not address the client's pain as scopolamine is not meant for pain relief. Advising the client that the effects have worn off is inaccurate because the medication is not used for pain management.

5. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Bruising
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works to prevent blood clots, but it can also increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from the gums. Prompt identification and management of bleeding are crucial to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while bruising and other symptoms can occur as a result of bleeding, they are not the primary side effect to monitor for with clopidogrel. Nausea and headache are less commonly associated with clopidogrel use compared to bleeding.

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