Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is known to cause peripheral edema as a potential adverse effect due to its vasodilatory properties. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema in patients taking amlodipine is crucial to identify and manage this side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because amlodipine is not associated with causing bradycardia, hypertension (as the patient already has hypertension), or increased appetite as adverse effects.

2. A client is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect of this medication?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Bleeding or bruising
• C. Gastrointestinal bleeding
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is prescribed clopidogrel, the nurse should monitor for potential side effects related to bleeding due to its antiplatelet effect. Gastrointestinal bleeding is a severe side effect associated with clopidogrel use. Monitoring for signs of gastrointestinal bleeding, such as black, tarry stools or vomiting blood, is essential to prevent serious complications.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Headache
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia due to its effect on slowing down the heart rate, which can be dangerous in a client with atrial fibrillation. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because digoxin is not known to cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.

4. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Hair loss
• C. Weight gain
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tremors. When a client is prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder, one common side effect to monitor for is tremors. Tremors are a known adverse effect of lithium therapy and should be monitored closely by healthcare providers. Choice A, dry mouth, is not typically associated with lithium use. Hair loss, as in choice B, is not a common side effect of lithium. Weight gain, as mentioned in choice C, can occur with some medications used to treat bipolar disorder, but it is not a prominent side effect of lithium specifically.

5. When a client with hepatic encephalopathy is receiving lactulose, which parameter is essential to monitor for a response to the drug?

• A. Serum hepatic enzymes
• B. Fingerstick glucose
• C. Stool color and character
• D. Serum electrolytes and ammonia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hepatic encephalopathy, the goal of lactulose therapy is to reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting its excretion in the stool. Therefore, monitoring serum electrolytes and ammonia levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of lactulose in lowering ammonia levels and improving the client's condition. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because serum hepatic enzymes, fingerstick glucose, and stool color/character are not directly related to monitoring the response to lactulose therapy in hepatic encephalopathy.

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