Nursing Elites

1. A client who had a thyroidectomy 24 hours ago reports tingling around the mouth and in the fingertips. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check the client’s calcium levels.
• B. Administer a dose of calcium gluconate.
• C. Assess the client's incision site for bleeding.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tingling around the mouth and in the fingertips can indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication after thyroidectomy due to accidental damage to the parathyroid glands. Checking calcium levels is crucial as it helps in diagnosing hypocalcemia accurately. Administering calcium without knowing the actual calcium levels can be dangerous. Assessing the incision site for bleeding is important but not the priority in this situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after assessing and managing the immediate concern of hypocalcemia.

2. When caring for a patient with a chest tube, which nursing action is most important?

• A. Clamping the chest tube every 2 hours to prevent air leaks
• B. Keeping the drainage system below chest level
• C. Emptying the drainage system every hour to prevent backflow
• D. Removing the chest tube when drainage decreases significantly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most crucial nursing action when caring for a patient with a chest tube is to keep the drainage system below chest level (choice B). This position helps ensure proper drainage and prevents backflow of fluid or air into the pleural space, promoting optimal functioning of the chest tube. Clamping the chest tube every 2 hours (choice A) is incorrect as it can obstruct the drainage system and lead to complications. Emptying the drainage system every hour (choice C) is unnecessary unless there are specific clinical indications. Removing the chest tube when drainage decreases significantly (choice D) is also incorrect as the decision should be based on overall clinical assessment rather than drainage amount alone.

3. The PN is reviewing instructions for the use of pilocarpine eye drops with a client who has glaucoma. The client replies that the drops are used to anesthetize the eye if eye pain is experienced. What action should the PN implement?

• A. Document in the chart that the client understands the correct action and use of eye drops
• B. Reassure the client that the drops will not be needed often since eye pain in glaucoma is not common
• C. Reteach the client about the action of the eye drops to decrease pressure in the eyes
• D. Explain to the client that the eye drops do not anesthetize the eyes but reduce pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pilocarpine eye drops are used to reduce intraocular pressure in glaucoma, not to anesthetize the eye. The PN should reteach the client about the purpose of the medication to ensure proper use and understanding, which is crucial for effective treatment. Choice A is incorrect because just documenting understanding without addressing the client's misconception is not enough. Choice B is incorrect as it provides incorrect information about the purpose of the eye drops and may lead to further misunderstanding. Choice D is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information stating that the drops provide pain relief, which is not their primary purpose.

4. When a woman in early pregnancy is leaving the clinic, she blushes and asks the nurse if it is true that sex during pregnancy is bad for the baby. What is the best response for the nurse to give?

• A. The baby is protected by the sac. Sex is perfectly alright.
• B. It is unlikely to harm the baby. What you do with your personal life is your concern.
• C. Intercourse during pregnancy is usually alright, but you need to ask the doctor if it is acceptable for you.
• D. In a normal pregnancy, intercourse will not harm the baby. However, many women experience a change in desire. How are you feeling?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is the best response as it reassures the patient that intercourse in a normal pregnancy will not harm the baby. It also shows empathy by acknowledging that many women experience changes in sexual desire during pregnancy. This response validates the patient's concerns and opens up a dialogue about her feelings. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks information about changes in sexual desire and oversimplifies the situation. Choice B is dismissive of the patient's concerns and does not provide adequate information. Choice C is not the best response as it suggests asking the doctor without offering immediate reassurance or addressing the patient's worries.

5. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

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