a client who experienced partial thickness burns with over 50 body surface area bsa 2 weeks ago suddenly becomes restless and agitated
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HESI Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing

1. A client who experienced partial-thickness burns with over 50% body surface area (BSA) 2 weeks ago suddenly becomes restless and agitated.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a burn patient with sudden restlessness and agitation, it is crucial to consider hypoxia or other critical conditions. As such, notifying the rapid response team is the most appropriate action to ensure prompt assessment and intervention. Increasing room temperature (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario. While monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is important, the sudden change in behavior warrants immediate action. Assessing oxygen saturation (Choice B) is a step in the right direction, but involving the rapid response team ensures a comprehensive evaluation and timely management of the patient's condition.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, so monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is essential to assess its effectiveness. These values reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and can indicate if the treatment is improving anemia related to chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine are indicators of kidney function, while serum potassium levels are monitored due to electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in kidney disease, but they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.

3. A client with hyperkalemia is being treated in the emergency department. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Calcium gluconate. In hyperkalemia, where potassium levels are elevated, calcium gluconate is administered to stabilize the myocardial cell membrane and protect the heart from potential arrhythmias. Potassium chloride (choice A) would worsen the condition by further increasing potassium levels. Magnesium sulfate (choice C) is not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia. Sodium bicarbonate (choice D) is used in metabolic acidosis, not specifically for hyperkalemia.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What do these symptoms indicate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia are classic signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which occurs due to a combination of hyperglycemia and ketone production. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is characterized by low blood sugar levels, leading to symptoms like confusion, shakiness, and sweating, which are different from the symptoms described in the scenario. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) (Choice C) typically presents with severe hyperglycemia, dehydration, and altered mental status, rather than the triad of symptoms mentioned. Insulin shock (Choice D) refers to a severe hypoglycemic reaction due to excessive insulin, manifesting with confusion, sweating, and rapid heartbeat, not the symptoms seen in the client with diabetes mellitus described in this scenario.

5. When conducting a class for parents about sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), the nurse instructs the class that the infant should be placed in which position to sleep?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, supine. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends placing infants on their back, or supine, to sleep as it has been shown to reduce the risk of SIDS. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing infants on their right side, left side, or prone (on their stomach) respectively are not recommended sleeping positions due to the increased risk of SIDS associated with those positions.

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