Nursing Elites

1. A client with COPD is receiving home oxygen therapy. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Increase oxygen flow rate during physical activity
• B. Smoke at least 10 feet away from the oxygen source
• C. Use petroleum jelly to prevent nasal dryness
• D. Ensure the oxygen tank is stored in a secure upright position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching for a client with COPD receiving home oxygen therapy is to ensure the oxygen tank is stored in a secure upright position. This is crucial to prevent accidents such as leaks or falls that can lead to serious injury or damage. Choice A is incorrect as increasing the oxygen flow rate during physical activity without a healthcare provider's guidance can be harmful. Choice B is incorrect as smoking near an oxygen source can cause a fire hazard. Choice C is incorrect as petroleum jelly is flammable and should not be used around oxygen due to the risk of combustion.

2. A client with hyperkalemia is being treated in the emergency department. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Potassium chloride
• B. Calcium gluconate
• C. Magnesium sulfate
• D. Sodium bicarbonate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Calcium gluconate. In hyperkalemia, where potassium levels are elevated, calcium gluconate is administered to stabilize the myocardial cell membrane and protect the heart from potential arrhythmias. Potassium chloride (choice A) would worsen the condition by further increasing potassium levels. Magnesium sulfate (choice C) is not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia. Sodium bicarbonate (choice D) is used in metabolic acidosis, not specifically for hyperkalemia.

3. An adolescent female asks the nurse about taking retinoic acid (Accutane). What guidance should be provided by the nurse?

• A. The medication should be used for 10 weeks only.
• B. The medication requires that sexually active females use contraception.
• C. The medication lowers hemoglobin levels very quickly.
• D. The medication has few side effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct guidance the nurse should provide is that sexually active females must use contraception while taking Accutane and for 1 month after the 20 weeks it is prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because Accutane is typically taken for a longer duration than 10 weeks. Choice C is incorrect because Accutane does not lower hemoglobin levels quickly. Choice D is incorrect as Accutane is known for having many side effects, including the risk of birth defects.

4. Which nursing problem has the highest priority when planning care for a client with Meniere’s disease?

• A. Potential for injury related to vertigo.
• B. Alteration in comfort due to ear pain.
• C. Impaired skin integrity due to immobility.
• D. Anxiety due to fear of falling.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When caring for a client with Meniere’s disease, the highest priority nursing problem is the potential for injury related to vertigo. Meniere’s disease is characterized by symptoms like vertigo, which can increase the risk of falls and injuries. Ensuring the client's safety and preventing falls take precedence over other concerns. Choices B, C, and D are not the highest priority because they do not directly address the immediate risk of harm associated with vertigo and falls.

5. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Calculate total intake and output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.

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