HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet
1. Based on the interpretation of this strip, what action should be implemented first?
- A. Call a code.
- B. Start CPR.
- C. Administer IV fluids.
- D. Apply oxygen.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Call a code.' In the context of ventricular fibrillation (V-Fib), immediate defibrillation is crucial. Calling a code is the first step to activating the emergency response team, including individuals trained to provide defibrillation. Starting CPR (Choice B) may be necessary but should follow defibrillation. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) and applying oxygen (Choice D) are important interventions in cardiac arrest cases, but in V-Fib, the priority is defibrillation to restore normal heart rhythm.
2. A client with a spinal cord injury at the level of T1 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Which symptom is indicative of this condition?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Severe headache
- D. Flushed skin below the level of injury
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. It is characterized by a sudden onset of severe hypertension, pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, and flushing of the skin above the level of injury. The severe headache is a key symptom resulting from uncontrolled hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as autonomic dysreflexia typically presents with hypertension, not hypotension, tachycardia, or flushed skin below the level of injury.
3. The family of a newly admitted child with cystic fibrosis is educated by the nurse that the treatment will be centered on what therapy?
- A. Chest physiotherapy
- B. Mucus-drying agents
- C. Prevention of diarrhea
- D. Insulin therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest physiotherapy. In cystic fibrosis, chest physiotherapy and aerosol medications are fundamental components of treatment to help clear mucus from the lungs, reduce the risk of infections, and improve breathing. Mucus-drying agents (Choice B) are not typically used in the treatment of cystic fibrosis. Prevention of diarrhea (Choice C) is not a primary focus in the treatment of cystic fibrosis. Insulin therapy (Choice D) is not relevant to cystic fibrosis, as it is a treatment for diabetes.
4. The mother of a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) asks why her child must be kept NPO. Which response would be the most correct?
- A. The epinephrine given causes nausea and vomiting.
- B. The child is being hydrated with IV fluids.
- C. The child is not hungry.
- D. The child's rapid respirations pose a risk for aspiration.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because rapid respirations predispose to aspiration in a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis. Choice A is incorrect because epinephrine does not directly relate to the need for NPO status. Choice B is incorrect as hydration with IV fluids is not the primary reason for keeping the child NPO. Choice C is incorrect as the child being hungry is not the main concern when keeping a child NPO in this situation.
5. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?
- A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
- B. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
- C. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible fat.
- D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.
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