HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. A client tells the PN that she has a family history of cancer and has increased the amount of dairy products in her diet to reduce her risk of getting cancer. How should the PN respond?
- A. Encourage the client to get plenty of exercise in addition to the dietary change
- B. Provide written information about the seven warning signs of cancer
- C. Remind the client to ensure that the dairy products are fortified with Vitamin D
- D. Suggest that an increase in fruits and vegetables is more beneficial
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Increasing fruits and vegetables in the diet is more beneficial in reducing cancer risk due to their high levels of antioxidants and fiber, which help protect against cancer. While exercise is important for overall health, in this context, focusing on fruits and vegetables is more relevant to reducing cancer risk than exercise alone. Providing information about cancer warning signs is not directly addressing the client's dietary choice. While Vitamin D is essential for various health aspects, the primary focus here should be on a diet rich in fruits and vegetables for cancer risk reduction.
2. A client has a prescription for a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a lumbar laminectomy. Which information should the PN reinforce about the action of the adjuvant pain modality?
- A. The discharge of electricity will distract the client's focus from the pain.
- B. An infusion of medication into the spinal canal will block pain perception.
- C. Pain perception in the cerebral cortex is dulled by the unit's discharge of an electrical stimulus.
- D. A mild electrical stimulus on the skin surface closes the gates of nerve conduction for severe pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The TENS unit works by providing a mild electrical stimulus to the skin, which helps to 'close the gate' on pain signals, reducing the perception of pain. Choice A is incorrect because distraction is not the primary mechanism of action for TENS. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different method of pain management involving medication infusion into the spinal canal. Choice C is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the location of pain perception modulation by the TENS unit.
3. A client is recovering from a right-sided mastectomy and is concerned about lymphedema. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching to minimize this risk?
- A. Encourage wearing tight clothing on the affected arm.
- B. Advise against lifting heavy objects with the affected arm.
- C. Recommend the client sleep on the affected side.
- D. Suggest frequent massage of the affected arm.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Advise against lifting heavy objects with the affected arm. Lifting heavy objects with the affected arm can increase the risk of lymphedema. It is important for clients to avoid activities that strain the affected arm to minimize the risk of developing lymphedema. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because wearing tight clothing on the affected arm, sleeping on the affected side, and frequent massage of the affected arm can potentially worsen lymphedema or impede the recovery process. Tight clothing can impede lymphatic flow, sleeping on the affected side can restrict circulation, and frequent massage can exacerbate swelling in the arm.
4. After admission, which observation is most important for the nurse to report immediately for an adult client who weighs 150 pounds and has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body from a house fire?
- A. Poor appetite and refusal to eat
- B. Systolic blood pressure at 102
- C. Painful moaning and crying
- D. Urinary output of 20 ml/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urinary output of 20 ml/hr is a sign of inadequate kidney perfusion and could indicate hypovolemic shock, which requires immediate intervention. In this situation, with severe burns over a large portion of the body, monitoring urinary output is crucial to assess kidney function and fluid status. Poor appetite, systolic blood pressure at 102, and painful moaning and crying are important but do not indicate the immediate need for intervention like inadequate urinary output does.
5. When administering IV fluids to a client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF), what is the nurse's primary concern?
- A. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload.
- B. Ensuring the client receives enough fluids to prevent dehydration.
- C. Preventing electrolyte imbalances.
- D. Maintaining the prescribed rate of fluid administration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary concern when administering IV fluids to a client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is monitoring for signs of fluid overload. Clients with CHF are particularly vulnerable to fluid overload, which can exacerbate their condition. Signs of fluid overload include edema and difficulty breathing. Therefore, the nurse must closely monitor these signs to prevent worsening of the client's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while ensuring hydration, preventing electrolyte imbalances, and maintaining the prescribed rate of fluid administration are important, they are secondary concerns compared to the critical task of monitoring for fluid overload in a client with CHF.
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