HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. When reinforcing diet teaching for a client diagnosed with hypokalemia, which foods should the PN encourage the client to eat? Select All That Apply
- A. Orange juice, oranges, bananas
- B. All are applicable
- C. Collard greens, kale, turnips
- D. Soybeans, lima beans, spinach
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: All are applicable. Foods rich in potassium, such as orange juice, oranges, bananas, collard greens, kale, soybeans, lima beans, and spinach, are essential for managing hypokalemia. These options provide a significant source of potassium, which helps in maintaining normal heart and muscle function. Choice A is incorrect because it does not include all the appropriate potassium-rich foods. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions vegetables rich in potassium, missing out on other essential sources like fruits and beans. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks key potassium-rich foods like oranges and bananas.
2. What is the best thing to say to a patient scheduled for cataract surgery who is concerned that the physician works on the correct eye?
- A. You are wearing an ID bracelet that will let the medical team know which eye to work on.
- B. When you are taken to the surgery area, the medical staff will confirm which eye needs the surgery.
- C. The surgeon will mark the correct eye before the cataract surgery based on your medical records.
- D. You will wear an ID bracelet, and the nurse will verify the eye scheduled for surgery by comparing it with your records and marking it with a permanent marker.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best response reassures the patient by explaining the process of verifying and marking the correct eye, a safety measure to prevent wrong-site surgery, directly addressing the patient’s concern. Choice A is close but implies the ID bracelet alone determines the correct eye, missing the verification process. Choice B talks about confirmation but lacks details about marking the correct eye. Choice C mentions the surgeon's record but does not specify the direct verification and marking process, unlike Choice D.
3. In which type of cardiomyopathy does septal involvement occur?
- A. Congestive
- B. Dilated
- C. Hypertrophic
- D. Restrictive
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Septal involvement is a characteristic feature of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, where the septal wall of the heart thickens. This thickening can obstruct blood flow out of the heart, leading to complications such as arrhythmias and heart failure. This differentiates it from other types of cardiomyopathy. In congestive cardiomyopathy (choice A), the heart's chambers become enlarged and weakened, but there is no specific mention of septal involvement. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves dilation and impaired contraction of the heart chambers, not specifically septal thickening. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice D) is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, affecting its ability to fill properly, without direct involvement of the septum.
4. A child with glomerulonephritis is admitted in the acute edematous phase. Based on this diagnosis, which nursing intervention should the nurse plan to include in the child's plan of care?
- A. Recommend parents bring favorite snacks
- B. Encourage ambulation daily to the playroom
- C. Measure blood pressure every 4 to 6 hours
- D. Offer a selection of fresh fruit for each meal
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to measure blood pressure every 4 to 6 hours. Monitoring blood pressure frequently is crucial in managing glomerulonephritis, as hypertension is a common complication during the acute edematous phase. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the specific needs of a child with glomerulonephritis. Choice B is incorrect as excessive activity may not be suitable during the acute phase, as rest and monitoring are more important. Choice D is incorrect as the focus should be on monitoring vital signs rather than meal options.
5. The practical nurse is caring for a client who had a total laryngectomy, left radical neck dissection, and tracheostomy. The client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via an enteral pump. Today the rate of feeding is increased from 50 ml/hr to 75 ml/hr. What parameter should the PN use to evaluate the client's tolerance to the rate of the feeding?
- A. Daily weight
- B. Gastric residual volumes
- C. Bowel sounds
- D. Urinary and stool output
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring gastric residual volumes helps to assess how well the client is tolerating the increased feeding rate. High residuals may indicate delayed gastric emptying, which could lead to complications like aspiration. This helps in adjusting the feeding plan as necessary. Daily weight (Choice A) is not the most appropriate parameter to evaluate tolerance to feeding rate changes. Bowel sounds (Choice C) and urinary/stool output (Choice D) are important assessments but do not directly indicate tolerance to enteral feeding rate changes.
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