Nursing Elites

1. When reinforcing diet teaching for a client diagnosed with hypokalemia, which foods should the PN encourage the client to eat? Select All That Apply

• A. Orange juice, oranges, bananas
• B. All are applicable
• C. Collard greens, kale, turnips
• D. Soybeans, lima beans, spinach

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: All are applicable. Foods rich in potassium, such as orange juice, oranges, bananas, collard greens, kale, soybeans, lima beans, and spinach, are essential for managing hypokalemia. These options provide a significant source of potassium, which helps in maintaining normal heart and muscle function. Choice A is incorrect because it does not include all the appropriate potassium-rich foods. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions vegetables rich in potassium, missing out on other essential sources like fruits and beans. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks key potassium-rich foods like oranges and bananas.

2. The nurse assigns a UAP to assist with the personal care of a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?

• A. Assist the client with a hot bath
• B. Encourage self-care but allow rest periods
• C. Face the client directly when speaking
• D. Keep the head of the bed elevated at all times

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP to provide when assisting a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis is to encourage self-care but allow rest periods. Clients with multiple sclerosis often experience fatigue, so promoting self-care activities while ensuring they have adequate rest periods is crucial for symptom management and maintaining independence. Choice A is incorrect as hot baths can potentially exacerbate symptoms in clients with multiple sclerosis. Choice C is unrelated to the client's care needs during an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Choice D is not a priority instruction in this situation and may not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.

3. When preparing a sterile field for a procedure, which action should the nurse take to maintain sterility?

• A. Place sterile items around the sterile field
• B. Keep hands below waist level to avoid contamination
• C. Open the sterile package away from the body
• D. Avoid reaching over the sterile field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To maintain sterility when preparing a sterile field, it is essential to avoid reaching over the sterile field. This action can introduce contaminants from the nurse's clothing or unsterile areas, compromising the sterility of the field. Placing sterile items around the sterile field (choice A) is incorrect as it may increase the risk of contamination by extending the area where non-sterile items may come in contact. Keeping hands below waist level (choice B) is also incorrect as it does not prevent contamination effectively. Opening the sterile package away from the body (choice C) is incorrect since it exposes the contents to the nurse's body, which is not sterile.

4. Which of the following is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?

• A. Using sterile gloves
• B. Wearing a face mask
• C. Performing hand hygiene
• D. Using disposable equipment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing hand hygiene is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting. Hand hygiene helps remove pathogens that could be transmitted through direct contact, making it a crucial practice in infection control. While using sterile gloves and disposable equipment are important in certain situations, they do not address the potential transmission of pathogens through direct contact, unlike hand hygiene. Wearing a face mask is important for respiratory precautions but may not be as effective as hand hygiene in preventing the spread of infections through direct contact.

5. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?

• A. Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin
• B. Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily
• C. Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
• D. Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.

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