Nursing Elites

1. What is the most appropriate nursing action when a patient on anticoagulant therapy develops sudden, severe back pain?

• A. Administer pain medication
• B. Apply a cold compress to the back
• C. Assess for signs of internal bleeding
• D. Reposition the patient for comfort

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient on anticoagulant therapy experiences sudden, severe back pain, the priority nursing action is to assess for signs of internal bleeding. Severe back pain in this context could be indicative of internal bleeding, such as a retroperitoneal bleed, which is a critical condition requiring immediate attention. Administering pain medication or applying a cold compress may mask or delay the identification of a potentially life-threatening situation. Repositioning the patient for comfort is not the priority when internal bleeding needs to be ruled out.

2. A new mother who is breastfeeding her newborn for the first time after delivery reports nipple pain when the baby sucks. Based on this client problem, which action should the PN take?

• A. Ensure that all the areolar tissue of the nipple is in the infant's mouth
• B. Have the mother reposition the infant from the cradle to the football hold
• C. Check for engorgement and assess the nipples for cracks or lesions
• D. Apply a warm compress to the breast for 10 minutes before each feeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Proper latch, including all the areolar tissue in the infant's mouth, is essential to prevent nipple pain and ensure effective breastfeeding. Option A is correct because ensuring that all the areolar tissue of the nipple is in the infant's mouth helps achieve a good latch, reducing nipple pain. Option B is incorrect as repositioning the infant may not address the root cause of the pain related to latch issues. Option C is incorrect because while checking for engorgement and nipple issues is important, it does not directly address the latch concern causing the pain. Option D is incorrect as applying a warm compress is not recommended for breastfeeding mothers; a warm compress can help with pain associated with engorgement, but it does not address latch issues.

3. What is an essential nursing action before administering a blood transfusion?

• A. Checking the patient’s blood pressure
• B. Verifying the blood type and patient identity with another nurse
• C. Flushing the IV line with saline
• D. Administering pre-transfusion medications

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the blood type and patient identity with another nurse is crucial before administering a blood transfusion. This step helps prevent transfusion reactions and ensures that the correct blood is given to the right patient. Checking the patient’s blood pressure, although important, is not directly related to verifying blood type and patient identity. Flushing the IV line with saline is a good practice but is not as critical as confirming the blood type and patient identity. Administering pre-transfusion medications would come after verifying the blood type and patient identity.

4. In which condition is the 'butterfly rash' most commonly seen?

• A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
• B. Rheumatoid arthritis
• C. Psoriasis
• D. Dermatomyositis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The 'butterfly rash' across the cheeks and nose is a classic sign of SLE, an autoimmune disease. This rash is a key dermatological manifestation of SLE, often triggered or worsened by exposure to sunlight. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the 'butterfly rash' is not commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, or dermatomyositis.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.

Similar Questions