Nursing Elites

1. A client receives a prescription for acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) 1.4 grams per nasogastric tube q4 hours. Acetylcysteine is available as a 10% solution (10 grams/100ml). How many ml of the 10% solution should the nurse administer per dose?

• A. 7
• B. 10
• C. 14
• D. 1.4 grams of acetylcysteine is equivalent to 14 ml of a 10% solution.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the amount of the 10% acetylcysteine solution to administer, convert the 1.4 grams to milligrams (1.4 grams = 1400 mg). Then, as the 10% solution contains 10 grams (10,000 mg) per 100 ml, it means there are 1000 mg of acetylcysteine in every 10 ml of the solution (10,000 mg / 100 ml = 100 mg/ml). Therefore, to administer 1400 mg (1.4 grams) of acetylcysteine, the nurse should give 14 ml of the 10% solution. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not accurately convert the amount of acetylcysteine to the corresponding volume of the 10% solution.

2. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

• A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
• B. To promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration
• C. To promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance
• D. To decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is done to reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, aiding in lung expansion and oxygenation. This position helps improve respiratory mechanics by allowing the diaphragm to move more effectively. Choice B is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed does not directly promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration. Choice C is incorrect because although elevating the head of the bed can assist with airway clearance, its primary purpose in ARDS is to decrease pressure on the diaphragm. Choice D is incorrect because reducing pressure on the medullary center is not the main goal of elevating the head of the bed; the focus is on enhancing lung function and oxygen exchange.

3. The nurse assesses a client one hour after starting a transfusion of packed red blood cells and determines that there are no indications of a transfusion reaction. What instructions should the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is working with the nurse?

• A. Continue to measure the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete
• B. Since a reaction did not occur, the priority is to maintain client comfort during the transfusion
• C. Monitor the client carefully for the next three hours and report the onset of a reaction immediately
• D. Notify the nurse when the transfusion has finished, so further client assessment can be done

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP is to continue measuring the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete. This is important because continuous monitoring of vital signs during the transfusion helps detect any delayed reactions promptly. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining client comfort is important but not the priority over monitoring vital signs. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring should be ongoing and not limited to a specific time frame. Choice D is incorrect as the UAP should monitor vital signs throughout the transfusion, not just at the end.

4. When designing a program to provide primary preventative health care to a community-based healthcare system, which service should the nurse consider for inclusion in the program? Select all that apply.

• A. Breast screening for older women
• B. Rehabilitation services for stroke victims
• C. Blood pressure assessments
• D. Antepartum nutritional counseling

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Breast screening for older women. In the context of primary preventative health care, breast screening for older women is crucial for early detection of breast cancer. Choice B, rehabilitation services for stroke victims, focuses on rehabilitative care rather than primary preventative care. Choice C, blood pressure assessments, is important for monitoring health status but not exclusive to primary prevention. Choice D, antepartum nutritional counseling, is more related to prenatal care than primary preventative health care. Therefore, choices B, C, and D do not directly align with the primary preventative health care objective of the grant.

5. A client has a blood glucose level of 70 mg/dl and reports feeling shaky and weak. What is the best initial action by the nurse?

• A. Obtain a fingerstick glucose reading
• B. Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
• C. Perform a quick assessment of the client’s neuro status
• D. Provide a glass of milk and monitor the client’s symptoms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate is the best initial action to address hypoglycemia symptoms promptly by raising blood glucose levels. This intervention is crucial to prevent further deterioration in the client's condition. Obtaining a fingerstick glucose reading is important but may delay treatment. Performing a quick assessment of the client's neuro status is secondary to addressing the immediate low blood glucose levels. Providing a glass of milk is not the recommended first-line treatment for hypoglycemia; fast-acting carbohydrates are preferred to rapidly increase blood sugar levels.

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