following the evacuation of a subdural hematoma an older adult develops an infection the client is transferred to the neuro intensive care unit with a
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam

1. Following the evacuation of a subdural hematoma, an older adult develops an infection. The client is transferred to the neuro intensive care unit with a temperature of 101.8 F (39.3 C) axillary, pulse of 180 beats/minute, and a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. What is the priority intervention to include in this client’s plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority intervention for the client in this scenario is to maintain intravenous (IV) access. Given the client's condition with infection, elevated temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, it is crucial to ensure IV access for administering antibiotics, fluids, and other medications promptly. This can help manage the infection, stabilize hemodynamics, and support the client's hydration and medication needs. Checking neuro vital signs, although important, is secondary to addressing the immediate need for IV access. Keeping the suture line clean and dry is important for wound care but not the priority when dealing with a systemic infection and hemodynamic instability.

2. When assessing a mildly obese 35-year-old female client, the nurse is unable to locate the gallbladder when palpating below the liver margin at the lateral border of the rectus abdominal muscle. What is the most likely explanation for the failure to locate the gallbladder by palpation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Obesity can make it difficult to palpate the gallbladder due to increased abdominal tissue, making it challenging to locate specific structures. Choice B is incorrect because the nurse is palpating in the correct location below the liver margin at the lateral border of the rectus abdominal muscle, where the gallbladder is typically located. Choice C is incorrect as the inability to palpate the gallbladder does not necessarily indicate abnormality; it may be due to anatomical variations or technical challenges. Choice D is incorrect as the issue lies more with the difficulty posed by excess adipose tissue rather than the need for deeper palpation techniques.

3. A client with a severe prostatic infection that caused a blocked urethra is 3 days post-surgical urinary diversion. The healthcare provider directs the nurse to remove the suprapubic catheter to allow the client to void normally. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a 20 ml syringe to deflate the balloon first when removing a suprapubic catheter. This step is essential to ensure the safe removal of the catheter without causing any harm or discomfort to the client. Deflating the balloon allows for the catheter to be easily removed. Option A, cleansing the site around the catheter, is not the initial step in this process and can be done after catheter removal. Option C, clamping the catheter until the client voids naturally, is incorrect as it can lead to complications like urinary retention. Option D, emptying urine from the urinary drainage bag, is not the first step in removing the suprapubic catheter and does not address the need to deflate the balloon for safe removal.

4. A client prescribed warfarin is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Consistency in vitamin K intake is crucial for clients on warfarin to maintain stable anticoagulation levels. Option A is incorrect as vitamin C does not directly interact with warfarin. Option C is incorrect because although leafy greens are high in vitamin K, excessive consumption can affect warfarin's effectiveness. Option D is incorrect as any changes in diet, particularly in vitamin K intake, can impact the efficacy of warfarin.

5. An adult male was diagnosed with stage IV lung cancer three weeks ago. His wife approaches the nurse and asks how she will know that her husband's death is imminent because their two adult children want to be there when he dies. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to explain that the client will start to lose consciousness and his body systems will slow down. Providing information on the signs of impending death helps the family prepare emotionally and allows them to be present at the appropriate time. Choice B is incorrect because it does not empower the family with the knowledge they seek. Choice C is incorrect as discussing the client’s health status individually with the adult children may not address the wife's immediate concern. Choice D is incorrect as the priority should be on preparing the family for the signs of imminent death rather than focusing on logistical details.

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