Nursing Elites

1. Following the evacuation of a subdural hematoma, an older adult develops an infection. The client is transferred to the neuro intensive care unit with a temperature of 101.8 F (39.3 C) axillary, pulse of 180 beats/minute, and a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. What is the priority intervention to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Confusion
• B. Check neuro vital signs every 4 hours.
• C. Maintain intravenous access.
• D. Keep the suture line clean and dry.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority intervention for the client in this scenario is to maintain intravenous (IV) access. Given the client's condition with infection, elevated temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, it is crucial to ensure IV access for administering antibiotics, fluids, and other medications promptly. This can help manage the infection, stabilize hemodynamics, and support the client's hydration and medication needs. Checking neuro vital signs, although important, is secondary to addressing the immediate need for IV access. Keeping the suture line clean and dry is important for wound care but not the priority when dealing with a systemic infection and hemodynamic instability.

2. After implementing a new fall prevention protocol on the nursing unit, which action by the nurse-manager best evaluates the protocol’s effectiveness?

• A. Compare the number of falls that occurred before and after protocol implementation
• B. Analyze data that reflects the unit’s costs incurred due to the new protocol
• C. Conduct a chart review on the unit to determine the number of clients at risk for falling
• D. Consult with the physical therapist to evaluate the benefits of the new fall protocol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best way to evaluate the effectiveness of a new fall prevention protocol is by comparing the number of falls that occurred before and after its implementation. This direct comparison helps in assessing the impact of the protocol on reducing fall rates. Choices B, C, and D do not directly measure the effectiveness of the protocol. Analyzing costs incurred (Choice B), conducting a chart review (Choice C), or consulting with a physical therapist (Choice D) may provide valuable information but do not specifically evaluate the protocol's effectiveness in preventing falls.

3. In Duchenne muscular dystrophy, if a child has a Gower sign, what behavior should the nurse expect the child to exhibit?

• A. Stands from sitting on the floor by using hands to walk up legs
• B. Exhibits muscular atrophy of upper and lower extremities
• C. Is unable to stand because of contractures of both hips
• D. Walks with an unsteady gait and slaps feet on the floor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Gower sign is a characteristic finding in Duchenne muscular dystrophy where a child uses hands to walk up the legs when standing from a sitting position due to proximal muscle weakness. This behavior is indicative of the child trying to compensate for weak hip and thigh muscles. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the specific behavior associated with the Gower sign. Muscular atrophy, contractures of both hips, and an unsteady gait with foot slapping are not directly related to the Gower sign.

4. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?

• A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
• B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
• C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
• D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.

5. The parents of a 6-year-old child recently diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy tell the nurse that their child wants to continue attending swimming classes. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Encourage the parents to allow the child to continue attending swimming lessons with supervision
• B. Suggest that the child be encouraged to participate in a team sport to promote socialization
• C. Explain that their child is not mature enough to understand the risks associated with swimming
• D. Provide a list of alternative activities that are less likely to cause the child to experience fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the parents to allow the child to continue attending swimming lessons with supervision is the most appropriate response. Swimming can be beneficial for the child, providing both exercise and enjoyment. Supervision can help manage any risks associated with swimming. Choice B is incorrect because the child's preference for swimming should be respected, and swimming can still offer socialization opportunities. Choice C is incorrect as it undermines the child's capability to understand the situation. Choice D is less appropriate as it does not address the child's interest in swimming and may limit beneficial physical activity.

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