HESI LPN
PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. According to the principle of asepsis, which situation should the PN consider to be sterile?
- A. A one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room
- B. A sterile glove that the PN thinks might have touched hair
- C. A wrapped, unopened sterile 4x4 gauze pad placed on a damp table top
- D. An open sterile Foley catheter kit set up on a table at the PN's waist level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: According to the principle of asepsis, the one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room is considered non-sterile, while the central area remains sterile. Therefore, the PN should consider the situation described in choice A to be sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a glove that may have touched hair is contaminated. Choice C is incorrect as a sterile item placed on a damp surface is considered contaminated. Choice D is incorrect as a sterile kit set up at the PN's waist level is prone to contamination.
2. The PN notes that a UAP is ambulating a male client who had a stroke and has right-sided weakness. The UAP is walking on the client's left side. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Instruct the UAP to walk on the client's affected side
- B. Take over the ambulation and provide guidance to the UAP immediately
- C. Provide the client with an assistive device, such as a cane or walker
- D. Tell the UAP to take the client back to his room
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the PN to take is to instruct the UAP to walk on the client’s affected side. This is essential to provide the necessary support and prevent falls, especially when the client has weakness on one side due to a stroke. Walking on the affected side helps provide stability and assistance to the weaker side. Choice B is incorrect because it would be more appropriate for the PN to provide immediate guidance and correct the UAP's positioning rather than taking over the task completely. Choice C is incorrect because while assistive devices may be beneficial, the immediate concern is the UAP's positioning during ambulation, not providing the client with an assistive device. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication to return the client to his room unless it is necessary for his safety or well-being.
3. After a hip replacement surgery, a client is instructed to use an abduction pillow while in bed. What is the primary purpose of this device?
- A. To reduce the risk of blood clots.
- B. To prevent hip dislocation.
- C. To improve circulation in the legs.
- D. To alleviate pain and discomfort.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of using an abduction pillow after hip replacement surgery is to prevent hip dislocation. The abduction pillow keeps the legs separated, which reduces the risk of hip dislocation by preventing excessive internal rotation and adduction of the hip joint. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as the main goal of using the abduction pillow is to maintain proper positioning and stability of the hip joint to prevent dislocation, rather than addressing blood clots, circulation, or pain relief.
4. When caring for a patient with a chest tube, which nursing action is most important?
- A. Clamping the chest tube every 2 hours to prevent air leaks
- B. Keeping the drainage system below chest level
- C. Emptying the drainage system every hour to prevent backflow
- D. Removing the chest tube when drainage decreases significantly
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most crucial nursing action when caring for a patient with a chest tube is to keep the drainage system below chest level (choice B). This position helps ensure proper drainage and prevents backflow of fluid or air into the pleural space, promoting optimal functioning of the chest tube. Clamping the chest tube every 2 hours (choice A) is incorrect as it can obstruct the drainage system and lead to complications. Emptying the drainage system every hour (choice C) is unnecessary unless there are specific clinical indications. Removing the chest tube when drainage decreases significantly (choice D) is also incorrect as the decision should be based on overall clinical assessment rather than drainage amount alone.
5. During a clinic visit for a sore throat, a client's basal metabolic panel reveals a serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L. Which intervention should the PN recommend to the client based on this finding?
- A. Increase intake of dried peaches and apricots
- B. Reduce intake of red meats
- C. Encourage use of a soft toothbrush
- D. Force fluid intake to 1500 mL daily
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend increasing the intake of dried peaches and apricots. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is considered low. Increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods can help raise the serum potassium level, preventing complications such as muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Choice B, reducing intake of red meats, is incorrect because red meats are not specifically related to potassium levels. Choice C, encouraging the use of a soft toothbrush, is unrelated to addressing low potassium levels. Choice D, forcing fluid intake to 1500 mL daily, is not the appropriate intervention for low serum potassium; instead, increasing potassium-rich foods is more beneficial.
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