Nursing Elites

1. According to the principle of asepsis, which situation should the PN consider to be sterile?

• A. A one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room
• B. A sterile glove that the PN thinks might have touched hair
• C. A wrapped, unopened sterile 4x4 gauze pad placed on a damp table top
• D. An open sterile Foley catheter kit set up on a table at the PN's waist level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to the principle of asepsis, the one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room is considered non-sterile, while the central area remains sterile. Therefore, the PN should consider the situation described in choice A to be sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a glove that may have touched hair is contaminated. Choice C is incorrect as a sterile item placed on a damp surface is considered contaminated. Choice D is incorrect as a sterile kit set up at the PN's waist level is prone to contamination.

2. While caring for a client with a new tracheostomy, the nurse notices that the client is attempting to speak but is unable to. What should the nurse explain to the client regarding their inability to speak?

• A. Speaking is not possible because the tracheostomy tube blocks the vocal cords.
• B. The tracheostomy tube prevents air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult.
• C. The client will regain the ability to speak once the tracheostomy tube is removed.
• D. The tracheostomy tube must be replaced with a speaking valve for the client to speak.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The tracheostomy tube bypasses the vocal cords, preventing air from reaching them, which is necessary for speech. This makes speaking difficult but not impossible. Removing the tracheostomy tube does not automatically restore the ability to speak (choice C). While a speaking valve can be added later to allow speech, initially, the tracheostomy tube itself hinders air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult (choice D is incorrect). Choice A is incorrect as the tracheostomy tube does not block the vocal cords directly; instead, it prevents air from reaching them.

3. When administering an analgesic to a client with low back pain, which intervention should the practical nurse implement to promote the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Massage the lower back and position the client in proper alignment
• B. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently and take deep breaths
• C. Assist the client in performing passive and active range of motion exercises
• D. Give medication with a full glass of water and offer high-fiber foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Massaging the lower back and positioning the client in proper alignment can help relieve muscle tension and enhance the effectiveness of analgesics by providing additional comfort and promoting better pain management. This intervention directly addresses the site of pain and can improve the medication's efficacy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while they may have benefits in other situations, they are not directly related to promoting the effectiveness of analgesics in clients with low back pain. Encouraging ambulation and deep breathing, assisting with range of motion exercises, and offering water and high-fiber foods are important for overall patient care but are not specific to enhancing analgesic effectiveness in this context.

4. After admission, which observation is most important for the nurse to report immediately for an adult client who weighs 150 pounds and has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body from a house fire?

• A. Poor appetite and refusal to eat
• B. Systolic blood pressure at 102
• C. Painful moaning and crying
• D. Urinary output of 20 ml/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urinary output of 20 ml/hr is a sign of inadequate kidney perfusion and could indicate hypovolemic shock, which requires immediate intervention. In this situation, with severe burns over a large portion of the body, monitoring urinary output is crucial to assess kidney function and fluid status. Poor appetite, systolic blood pressure at 102, and painful moaning and crying are important but do not indicate the immediate need for intervention like inadequate urinary output does.

5. Which condition is most commonly associated with a "bull's eye" rash?

• A. Lyme disease
• B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
• C. Syphilis
• D. Toxoplasmosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lyme disease. The "bull's eye" rash, or erythema migrans, is a hallmark of early Lyme disease, caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi. Choice B, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, presents with a different type of rash. Choice C, Syphilis, typically presents with a painless ulcer and rash but not a "bull's eye" rash. Choice D, Toxoplasmosis, does not typically present with a "bull's eye" rash.

Similar Questions