HESI LPN
PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. According to the principle of asepsis, which situation should the PN consider to be sterile?
- A. A one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room
- B. A sterile glove that the PN thinks might have touched hair
- C. A wrapped, unopened sterile 4x4 gauze pad placed on a damp table top
- D. An open sterile Foley catheter kit set up on a table at the PN's waist level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: According to the principle of asepsis, the one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room is considered non-sterile, while the central area remains sterile. Therefore, the PN should consider the situation described in choice A to be sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a glove that may have touched hair is contaminated. Choice C is incorrect as a sterile item placed on a damp surface is considered contaminated. Choice D is incorrect as a sterile kit set up at the PN's waist level is prone to contamination.
2. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?
- A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
- B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
- C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
- D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
3. Based on the principle of asepsis, which situation should the nurse consider to be sterile?
- A. A one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room
- B. A sterile glove that the nurse thinks might have touched her hair
- C. A wrapped, unopened sterile 4x4 gauze pad placed on a damp tabletop
- D. An open sterile Foley catheter kit set up on a table at the nurse's waist level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an open sterile Foley catheter kit set up at waist level is considered sterile if it has not been contaminated. Choice A is incorrect because the one-inch border around a sterile field is considered non-sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a sterile glove that might have touched the nurse's hair is likely contaminated. Choice C is incorrect because a wrapped, unopened sterile gauze pad placed on a damp tabletop may have become contaminated.
4. Which type of isolation is required for a patient with measles?
- A. Contact isolation
- B. Airborne isolation
- C. Droplet isolation
- D. Reverse isolation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Airborne isolation. Measles is highly contagious and can be transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne isolation is necessary to prevent its spread. Choice A, Contact isolation, is incorrect because measles is not primarily transmitted through direct contact. Choice C, Droplet isolation, is also incorrect as measles is not transmitted through large droplets but through smaller airborne particles. Choice D, Reverse isolation, is used to protect a patient from outside infections, not to prevent the spread of a contagious disease like measles.
5. The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus how to differentiate between hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. What statement indicates to the nurse that the client has an understanding of this condition?
- A. Glucose should be taken if I have a fruity breath odor.
- B. Glucose should be taken if I am urinating more than usual.
- C. Glucose should be taken if I have blurred vision.
- D. Glucose should be taken if I develop shakiness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Shakiness is a symptom of hypoglycemia, which is low blood sugar. Taking glucose can help raise blood sugar levels quickly in this situation. Fruity breath odor and excessive urination are signs of ketoacidosis, a complication of diabetes involving high levels of ketones in the blood. Blurred vision can be a symptom of high blood sugar, but it is not specific to hypoglycemia.
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