HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. What intervention should the nurse implement during the administration of a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent via an IV site in the client's arm?
- A. Assess IV site frequently for signs of extravasation
- B. Monitor capillary refill distal to the infusion site
- C. Apply a topical anesthetic at the infusion site for burning
- D. Explain that temporary burning at the IV site may occur
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should implement during the administration of a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent via an IV site in the client's arm is to assess the IV site frequently for signs of extravasation. Vesicants are agents that can cause tissue damage if they leak into the surrounding tissues. Monitoring for signs of extravasation such as swelling, pain, or redness is crucial to prevent tissue damage and ensure prompt intervention if extravasation occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring capillary refill, applying a topical anesthetic for burning, and explaining temporary burning do not directly address the risk of extravasation associated with vesicant chemotherapeutic agents.
2. A postpartum client who is bottle feeding develops breast engorgement. What is the best recommendation for the nurse to provide this client?
- A. Take a prescribed analgesic and expose breasts to air
- B. Place warm packs on both breasts
- C. Avoid stimulation of the breasts and wear a tight bra
- D. Express a small amount of breast milk by hand
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a postpartum client who is bottle feeding and develops breast engorgement, the best recommendation is to avoid stimulation of the breasts and wear a tight bra. This helps reduce engorgement by decreasing blood flow to the breasts. Option A is incorrect because exposing the breasts to air can further stimulate them, worsening engorgement. Option B is incorrect as warm packs can increase blood flow and exacerbate engorgement. Option D is incorrect as expressing breast milk can lead to further stimulation and increased engorgement.
3. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports that a client’s blood pressure cannot be measured because the client has casts on both arms and is unable to be turned to the prone position for blood pressure measurement in the legs. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Advise the UAP to document the last blood pressure obtained on the client's graphic sheet
- B. Estimate the blood pressure by assessing the pulse volume of the client’s radial pulses
- C. Demonstrate how to palpate the popliteal pulse with the client supine and the knee flexed
- D. Document why the blood pressure cannot be accurately measured at the present time
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client cannot have their blood pressure measured due to specific circumstances such as casts on both arms, the nurse should document the reason why the blood pressure cannot be obtained accurately. This documentation is crucial for maintaining a clear record of the client's condition and for continuity of care. Advising the UAP to document the last blood pressure obtained (Choice A) does not address the current inability to measure the blood pressure. Estimating the blood pressure by assessing the pulse volume of radial pulses (Choice B) is not a reliable method for obtaining accurate blood pressure readings. Demonstrating how to palpate the popliteal pulse (Choice C) is irrelevant in this situation as it does not provide a solution for accurately measuring the blood pressure.
4. What assessment data should lead the nurse to suspect that a client has progressed from HIV infection to AIDS?
- A. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes
- B. Presence of low-grade fever and sore throat
- C. Recent history of recurrent pneumonia
- D. CD4 blood cell count of 300
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Recent history of recurrent pneumonia.' Recurrent pneumonia is a hallmark indicator of progression to AIDS in clients with HIV infection. It signifies advanced immunosuppression when the body is unable to fight off infections effectively. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes (Choice A) are more indicative of local infections or inflammation rather than AIDS progression. The presence of a low-grade fever and sore throat (Choice B) may be common in various infections and are not specific to AIDS progression. While a CD4 blood cell count of 300 (Choice D) is below the normal range and indicates immunosuppression, it alone may not be sufficient to suspect progression to AIDS without other supporting indicators like opportunistic infections such as recurrent pneumonia.
5. A client with diabetic peripheral neuropathy has been taking pregabalin for 4 days. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?
- A. Granulating tissue in foot ulcer
- B. Full volume of pedal pulse
- C. Reduced level of pain
- D. Improved visual activity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Reduced level of pain.' Pregabalin is used to manage neuropathic pain, so a reduction in pain indicates the medication's effectiveness in this case. Granulating tissue in a foot ulcer and the full volume of a pedal pulse are not direct indicators of pregabalin's effectiveness in managing neuropathic pain. Improved visual activity is not related to the effects of pregabalin in diabetic peripheral neuropathy.
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