Nursing Elites

1. A client is recovering from gallbladder surgery performed under general anesthesia. How many times per hour should the nurse encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer?

• A. 4-5 times per hour
• B. 2-3 times per hour
• C. 6-7 times per hour
• D. 8-10 times per hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use the incentive spirometer 4-5 times per hour is the correct approach post-gallbladder surgery under general anesthesia. This frequency helps prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis, by promoting lung expansion. Choices B, C, and D suggest either too few or too many sessions per hour, which may not be optimal for the client's respiratory recovery needs. It is important to strike a balance between ensuring adequate lung expansion and not overexerting the client, which is why 4-5 times per hour is the recommended frequency.

2. The nurse is evaluating client learning about a low-sodium diet. Selection of which meal would indicate to the LPN that this client understands the dietary restrictions?

• A. Tossed salad with low-sodium dressing, bacon, and tomato sandwich.
• B. New England clam chowder, unsalted crackers, fresh fruit salad.
• C. Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream.
• D. Macaroni and cheese, diet Coke, and a slice of cherry pie.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream. These items are low in sodium, making it a suitable meal for someone on a low-sodium diet. Skim milk, turkey salad, and vanilla ice cream are naturally low in sodium, while the roll can be selected as a low-sodium option. Choices A, B, and D contain items that are typically high in sodium, such as bacon, clam chowder, crackers, and cheese, making them unsuitable for a low-sodium diet.

3. The client is being discharged and has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?

• A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption.
• B. I will weigh myself daily and report any significant weight loss.
• C. I will include potassium-rich foods in my diet while taking this medication.
• D. I will take this medication in the morning to prevent nocturia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weighing daily and reporting significant weight loss is crucial when taking furosemide to monitor for potential fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is typically taken on an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is incorrect as furosemide can lead to potassium loss, so potassium-rich foods should be consumed. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken earlier in the day to prevent nocturia, not at bedtime.

4. A client has a new prescription for a home oxygen concentrator. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client and their family?

• A. Check the cord routinely for frays or tearing
• B. Use oxygen around open flames
• C. Store oxygen concentrator in a closet
• D. Wear synthetic clothing to prevent static electricity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client and their family to check the cord routinely for frays or tearing. This is crucial to ensure the safety and proper function of the oxygen concentrator. Choice B is incorrect because oxygen should never be used around open flames due to the risk of fire. Choice C is also incorrect as oxygen cylinders or concentrators should not be stored in a closet due to ventilation and safety concerns. Choice D is incorrect because synthetic clothing can generate static electricity, which could pose a risk around oxygen equipment.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s extraocular eye movements. Which of the following should the professional do?

• A. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze.
• B. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 in) away from the client’s eyes.
• C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye.
• D. Position the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action when assessing extraocular eye movements. This technique assesses the movement of the eyes in all directions and helps to test cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6, which control eye movements. Choice B is incorrect as the distance mentioned is not relevant for assessing extraocular eye movements. Choice C is incorrect as both eyes need to be assessed independently. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart is related to visual acuity testing, not extraocular eye movements.

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