HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A nurse is caring for a young adult at a college health clinic. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Give the client information about immunization against meningitis.
- B. Tell the client to have a TB skin test every 2 years.
- C. Determine the client’s health risks.
- D. Teach the client about exercise recommendations.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assessing the client’s health risks is the priority as it provides essential information to guide subsequent care. By understanding the client’s health risks, the nurse can tailor health education and interventions, such as immunizations and lifestyle modifications, to address specific needs. Providing information about immunization against meningitis (Choice A) is important but should come after assessing health risks. Instructing the client to have a TB skin test every 2 years (Choice B) is relevant but not the initial step in care. Teaching about exercise recommendations (Choice D) is also essential but should follow the assessment of health risks.
2. In a mass casualty scenario at a child day care center, which child would the triage nurse prioritize for treatment last?
- A. An infant with intermittent bulging anterior fontanel between crying episodes
- B. A toddler with severe deep abrasions covering over 98% of the body
- C. A preschooler with 1 lower leg fracture and the other leg with an upper leg fracture
- D. A school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair on the arms
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a mass casualty scenario, the triage nurse would prioritize the toddler with severe deep abrasions covering over 98% of the body for treatment last. This child is categorized as 'expectant' due to the extensive injuries, which are unlikely to be survivable even with immediate treatment. The other choices describe injuries that are serious but have a higher likelihood of survival with appropriate and timely intervention. The infant with an intermittent bulging anterior fontanel may have increased intracranial pressure requiring urgent evaluation, the preschooler with leg fractures can be stabilized and treated effectively, and the school-age child with singed hair likely has superficial burns which can be managed promptly.
3. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
- A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
- B. Glascow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
- C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
- D. Glascow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When documenting a client in a non-responsive state with stable vital signs and independent breathing, the nurse should document the Glasgow Coma Scale score to assess the level of consciousness and the regularity of respirations. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper level of unconsciousness than described in the scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it does not provide a specific assessment like the Glasgow Coma Scale score. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 indicates a more alert state than described in the scenario.
4. When providing oral care to an unconscious patient, what action should the nurse take to protect the patient from injury?
- A. Moisten the mouth using lemon-glycerin sponges.
- B. Hold the patient's mouth open with gloved fingers.
- C. Use foam swabs to help remove plaque.
- D. Suction the oral cavity.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When caring for an unconscious patient, it is crucial to prevent choking and aspiration. Suctioning the oral cavity helps in removing secretions and preventing potential harm. Moisten the mouth using lemon-glycerin sponges may not effectively clear secretions. Holding the patient's mouth open with gloved fingers can cause discomfort and potential harm. Using foam swabs to remove plaque may not address the immediate risk of aspiration.
5. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Gingival hyperplasia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.
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