Nursing Elites

1. A nursing assistive personnel (AP) is providing AM care to patients. Which action by the NAP will require the nurse to intervene?

• A. Not offering a backrub to a patient with fractured ribs
• B. Not offering to wash the hair of a patient with neck trauma
• C. Turning off the television while giving a backrub to the patient
• D. Turning the patient's head with neck injury to the side when giving oral care

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Turning a patient's head with a neck injury to the side when giving oral care can lead to harm or further injury. The neck should be kept in a neutral position to prevent exacerbation of the injury. Choices A, B, and C are not actions that require immediate nurse intervention. Not offering a backrub, not washing a patient's hair, or turning off the television are not critical issues that pose harm to the patient's well-being or safety.

2. During an eye irrigation for a client exposed to smoke and ash, which nursing action should receive the highest priority?

• A. Wearing gloves during the procedure
• B. Using a sterile solution
• C. Irrigating from the inner to the outer canthus
• D. Positioning the client's head properly

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The highest priority during an eye irrigation for a client exposed to smoke and ash is wearing gloves during the procedure. This action is crucial as it helps prevent contamination and protects both the client and the nurse. Using a sterile solution is important but not as critical as ensuring the nurse's safety by wearing gloves. Irrigating from the inner to the outer canthus and positioning the client's head properly are essential steps in eye irrigation, but they are not the highest priority in this scenario compared to ensuring infection control by wearing gloves.

3. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

4. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with confusion and ataxia. The LPN/LVN recognizes that these symptoms may be related to a deficiency in which vitamin?

• A. Vitamin A
• B. Vitamin C
• C. Vitamin D
• D. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin B1 (Thiamine). Vitamin B1 deficiency, also known as Thiamine deficiency, is common in clients with a history of alcoholism. Thiamine is essential for proper brain function, and its deficiency can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion and ataxia. Vitamin A, C, and D deficiencies do not typically present with confusion and ataxia in the context of alcoholism. Vitamin A deficiency mainly affects vision, Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy with symptoms like bleeding gums, and Vitamin D deficiency is associated with bone disorders. Therefore, they are not the correct choices in this scenario.

5. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with abdominal pain. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Positive bowel sounds
• B. Rebound tenderness
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Elevated temperature

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated temperature is the correct finding to report immediately in a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease and abdominal pain. This could indicate a perforation or worsening of the condition, requiring prompt medical attention. Positive bowel sounds (Choice A) are a normal finding and not a cause for concern. Rebound tenderness (Choice B) is concerning but does not require immediate attention compared to an elevated temperature. Increased appetite (Choice C) is not a red flag symptom for peptic ulcer disease and can be considered a positive sign, not requiring immediate attention.

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