a client begins taking an antidepressant drug during the second day of hospitalization which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Exam 1

1. A client begins taking an antidepressant drug during the second day of hospitalization. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care while the client is taking the antidepressant?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the client's mood is essential when starting an antidepressant to assess for any changes or adverse effects related to the medication. Changes in mood can indicate the effectiveness of the antidepressant or potential side effects. Assessing appetite (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as monitoring mood in this context. Withdrawal symptoms (Choice C) are more relevant when discontinuing antidepressants rather than starting them. Energy level (Choice D) can be influenced by various factors and may not directly reflect the client's response to the antidepressant.

2. A client is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound in the morning and has been instructed to fast overnight. The client asks the nurse why fasting is necessary. What is the best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.' Fasting before an abdominal ultrasound is essential to empty the stomach, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal organs. This improves the quality of the imaging and enhances diagnostic accuracy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because reducing intestinal gases, preventing aspiration, and being a standard procedure for surgical interventions are not the primary reasons for fasting before an abdominal ultrasound.

3. The client with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes is being taught about diet management by the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates effective learning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because eating regular meals and snacks is crucial for maintaining stable blood sugar levels in individuals with diabetes. This approach helps prevent spikes and drops in blood sugar, promoting better management of the condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding all carbohydrates is not recommended as they are a major energy source and can be part of a balanced diet; eating whatever one wants while relying solely on medication can lead to uncontrolled blood sugar levels and complications; decreasing sugary foods intake can actually contribute to high blood sugar levels rather than preventing low blood sugar.

4. What is the function of the cervix in reproduction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The cervix functions in reproduction by secreting mucus that facilitates the transport of sperm to the uterus. Choice A is incorrect because the cervix does not interpret signals of sexual stimuli. Choice C is incorrect as the site for the union of ovum and sperm is the fallopian tube. Choice D is incorrect as the cervix is not involved in receiving the penis during intercourse.

5. What is the primary purpose of a chest tube in a client's care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To drain air and fluid from the pleural space. A chest tube is primarily used to remove accumulated air or fluid in the pleural space, preventing lung collapse or compromise of lung function. This intervention aims to re-expand the lung and enhance respiratory function. Choice B is incorrect because preventing infection is not the primary purpose of a chest tube. Choice C is incorrect as lung expansion is a result of draining the pleural space, not the primary goal. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring intrathoracic pressure is not the main objective of a chest tube insertion.

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