HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. A client begins taking an antidepressant drug during the second day of hospitalization. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care while the client is taking the antidepressant?
- A. Appetite
- B. Mood
- C. Withdrawal
- D. Energy level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the client's mood is essential when starting an antidepressant to assess for any changes or adverse effects related to the medication. Changes in mood can indicate the effectiveness of the antidepressant or potential side effects. Assessing appetite (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as monitoring mood in this context. Withdrawal symptoms (Choice C) are more relevant when discontinuing antidepressants rather than starting them. Energy level (Choice D) can be influenced by various factors and may not directly reflect the client's response to the antidepressant.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Provide a high-protein diet
- B. Encourage oral fluids
- C. Administer intravenous fluids as prescribed
- D. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with acute pancreatitis is to administer intravenous fluids as prescribed. Intravenous fluids are crucial to maintain hydration and electrolyte balance in clients with acute pancreatitis. Providing a high-protein diet (Choice A) is not recommended initially for clients with acute pancreatitis, as they may need to be kept NPO (nothing by mouth) to rest the pancreas. Encouraging oral fluids (Choice B) may not be appropriate if the client is experiencing severe symptoms and requires intravenous fluids. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice D) is important but not the immediate intervention needed to address the fluid and electrolyte imbalances associated with acute pancreatitis.
3. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being discharged with a prescription for epoetin alfa (Epogen). What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.
- C. Expect to feel better immediately.
- D. Avoid foods high in potassium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your blood pressure regularly.' Epoetin alfa (Epogen) can lead to hypertension as a side effect, so it is essential for clients with CKD to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Choice A is incorrect because epoetin alfa does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because the client should not expect immediate improvement upon starting the medication. Choice D is incorrect because while monitoring potassium intake is important in CKD, the question specifically pertains to epoetin alfa and its side effects, not potassium intake.
4. After placing a client at 26-weeks gestation in the lithotomy position, the client complains of dizziness and becomes pale and diaphoretic. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Instruct the client to take deep breaths.
- B. Place a wedge under the client's hip.
- C. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position.
- D. Remove the client's legs from the stirrups.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Placing a wedge under the client's hip is the correct action in this scenario. This helps relieve the pressure on the vena cava, which can become compressed in the lithotomy position during pregnancy, improving circulation and reducing symptoms like dizziness and pallor. Instructing the client to take deep breaths (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position (Choice C) would worsen the situation by further compressing the vena cava. Removing the client's legs from the stirrups (Choice D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of the issue.
5. The nurse is with a client when the healthcare provider explains that the biopsy classifies the results as a T1N0M0 tumor. What response should the nurse provide first?
- A. The letters represent tumor size, node involvement, and metastasis in cancer staging.
- B. The letters stand for tumor size, node involvement, and metastasis.
- C. Let me explain the cancer staging to you.
- D. Would you like further clarification on the tumor staging?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer as it accurately explains that the letters T, N, and M in cancer staging represent tumor size, node involvement, and metastasis, respectively. Understanding this staging system helps the client comprehend the extent and severity of the disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A has the correct information but is not the most precise response. Choice C is vague and does not directly address the client's need for clarification. Choice D offers further clarification without directly addressing the initial explanation provided by the healthcare provider.
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