HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client is prescribed cyclobenzaprine for muscle spasms. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which substance while taking this medication?
- A. Alcohol
- B. Caffeine
- C. Nicotine
- D. Dairy products
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcohol. When taking cyclobenzaprine, it is important to avoid alcohol as it can potentiate the central nervous system depressant effects of the medication. This interaction can lead to increased drowsiness, dizziness, and impaired coordination. Therefore, it is essential for the client to refrain from alcohol consumption while on cyclobenzaprine to prevent these adverse effects and ensure their safety. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because caffeine, nicotine, and dairy products do not have significant interactions with cyclobenzaprine. While caffeine and nicotine may have stimulant effects that could theoretically counteract some of the sedative effects of cyclobenzaprine, they are not contraindicated. Dairy products, on the other hand, do not interact with cyclobenzaprine and can be consumed safely.
2. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed atenolol, a beta-blocker medication used to treat hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as a potential side effect. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, and one common adverse effect is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because atenolol typically does not cause tachycardia, hypotension, or hyperglycemia as primary side effects. Instead, bradycardia is a common concern due to the drug's mechanism of action in reducing heart rate.
3. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed atenolol, a beta-blocker, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia, which is a potential side effect. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, so monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage bradycardia promptly.
4. A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased blood glucose levels
- B. Electrolyte imbalance
- C. Dehydration
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide, a diuretic, the nurse should be vigilant for potential adverse effects. Furosemide can lead to excessive fluid loss, resulting in dehydration. Dehydration is a significant concern as it can exacerbate heart failure symptoms. Additionally, furosemide can cause electrolyte imbalances, particularly affecting potassium and sodium levels. Monitoring for signs of dehydration and electrolyte disturbances is crucial to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety and well-being. Increased blood glucose levels and weight gain are not commonly associated with furosemide use in heart failure patients, making choices A and D incorrect.
5. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed valproate. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Hair loss
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. Valproate is known to cause weight gain as a common adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's weight regularly while on this medication to detect and address any changes that may occur.
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