Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Bruising
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Bruising is a common sign of potential bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Monitoring for bruising is essential as it can indicate a risk of bleeding that needs further assessment and management. Elevated blood pressure, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting are not direct signs of potential bleeding associated with warfarin therapy.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly associated with causing peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it may indicate a need for dosage adjustment or further evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as amlodipine is not known to cause tachycardia, bradycardia, or increased appetite as adverse effects.

3. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. The nurse should monitor the client for which adverse effect?

• A. Dizziness upon standing
• B. Weight loss
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypotension. Carvedilol, a beta-blocker, can lead to hypotension by blocking the effects of adrenaline, which can cause blood vessels to dilate and reduce blood pressure. While dizziness upon standing is a potential adverse effect of carvedilol, it is more specifically related to orthostatic hypotension, which is a form of hypotension that occurs when a person stands up from a sitting or lying position. Weight loss and bradycardia are not typically associated with carvedilol use. Therefore, the nurse should primarily monitor for hypotension in a client taking carvedilol.

4. A client with a diagnosis of depression is prescribed fluoxetine. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I should take this medication in the morning with food.
• B. It may take 1 to 4 weeks to notice improvement in symptoms.
• C. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
• D. This medication might make me feel drowsy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients prescribed fluoxetine should not stop taking the medication once they feel better without consulting their healthcare provider. It is essential to complete the full course of treatment as directed by the healthcare provider to prevent relapse or potential worsening of symptoms. Abruptly stopping fluoxetine can lead to withdrawal symptoms and may not effectively manage the condition. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to follow the healthcare provider's guidance regarding the duration of treatment with fluoxetine.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed amiodarone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Pulmonary toxicity
• B. Liver toxicity
• C. Thyroid dysfunction
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amiodarone is known to cause pulmonary toxicity, which can manifest as respiratory symptoms. Monitoring for signs such as cough, dyspnea, or chest pain is essential to detect this serious side effect early and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while amiodarone can also cause liver toxicity, thyroid dysfunction, and bradycardia, pulmonary toxicity is the most serious side effect that requires immediate attention due to its potential life-threatening consequences.

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