a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin the nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin the nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding
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Nursing Elites

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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Bruising is a common sign of potential bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Monitoring for bruising is essential as it can indicate a risk of bleeding that needs further assessment and management. Elevated blood pressure, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting are not direct signs of potential bleeding associated with warfarin therapy.

2. Which nursing diagnosis is commonly used among patients affected by fibromyalgia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased self-care in activities of daily living related to fatigue.' Patients with fibromyalgia commonly experience fatigue, which can lead to decreased ability to perform self-care activities. This nursing diagnosis addresses a direct consequence of fibromyalgia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly correlate with the common manifestations of fibromyalgia. Impaired mental functioning related to electrolyte imbalances and increased vigilance secondary to electrolyte imbalances are not typical presentations of fibromyalgia. 'At risk for a swallowing disorder related to fibromyalgia' is not a common nursing diagnosis associated with fibromyalgia; swallowing disorders are not a primary symptom of this condition.

3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client with COPD experiencing shortness of breath is to position the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion and breathing by reducing respiratory effort. Administering a high-flow oxygen mask (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the priority intervention. Providing a high-carbohydrate diet (Choice C) is not directly related to managing acute shortness of breath in COPD. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice D) is helpful for airway clearance but is not the priority intervention when the client is in distress with acute shortness of breath.

4. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the CDC?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. The CDC recommends administering the MMR booster to children aged 4 to 6 years. This booster dose is essential to ensure continued immunity against measles, mumps, and rubella. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the CDC guidelines for the age range of MMR booster administration.

5. The RN is planning care at a team meeting for a 2-month-old child in bilateral leg casts for congenital clubfoot. Which of these suggestions by the PN should be considered the priority nursing goal following cast application?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following cast application for congenital clubfoot in a 2-month-old child, the priority nursing goal should be to maintain tissue perfusion. This is crucial to prevent complications like compartment syndrome and ensure proper healing. While managing pain, relieving muscle spasms, and promoting mobility are important aspects of care, they are secondary to ensuring adequate tissue perfusion in this scenario.

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