Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Bruising
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Bruising is a common sign of potential bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Monitoring for bruising is essential as it can indicate a risk of bleeding that needs further assessment and management. Elevated blood pressure, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting are not direct signs of potential bleeding associated with warfarin therapy.

2. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Bruising
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works to prevent blood clots, but it can also increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from the gums. Prompt identification and management of bleeding are crucial to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while bruising and other symptoms can occur as a result of bleeding, they are not the primary side effect to monitor for with clopidogrel. Nausea and headache are less commonly associated with clopidogrel use compared to bleeding.

3. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed lurasidone. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. When a client is prescribed lurasidone, monitoring for weight gain is essential as lurasidone can cause this side effect. Patients on lurasidone should have their weight monitored regularly to detect any changes that may occur. Options B, C, and D are not typically associated with lurasidone use, making them less likely to be a direct side effect of this medication.

4. A client with multiple sclerosis starts a new prescription, baclofen, to control muscle spasticity. Three days later, the client calls the clinic nurse and reports feeling fatigued and dizzy. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid hazardous activities until symptoms subside
• B. Contact the healthcare provider immediately
• C. Continue taking the medication every day
• D. Stop taking the medication until the unpleasant side effects wear off

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide is to advise the client to avoid hazardous activities until the symptoms of fatigue and dizziness subside. These side effects can impair the client's ability to engage in activities that require alertness and coordination, posing a risk for accidents. Contacting the healthcare provider immediately may not be necessary unless the symptoms worsen or persist. Continuing to take the medication every day without addressing the side effects can lead to further complications. Stopping the medication abruptly without healthcare provider guidance can also be risky and may not be necessary if the symptoms improve with time.

5. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed valproic acid. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Liver toxicity
• B. Kidney stones
• C. Weight gain
• D. Pancreatitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Valproic acid is known to cause liver toxicity as a potential adverse effect. Regular monitoring of liver function tests is crucial to detect any signs of liver damage early on and prevent serious complications. Kidney stones, weight gain, and pancreatitis are not typically associated with valproic acid use, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

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