a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin the nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding
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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Bruising is a common sign of potential bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Monitoring for bruising is essential as it can indicate a risk of bleeding that needs further assessment and management. Elevated blood pressure, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting are not direct signs of potential bleeding associated with warfarin therapy.

2. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed topiramate. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct. Topiramate is associated with cognitive impairment as an adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's cognitive function while on this medication to assess for any signs of cognitive decline or impairment. Choice B, weight gain, is incorrect as topiramate is actually associated with weight loss rather than weight gain. Choice C, liver toxicity, is also incorrect as topiramate is not known to cause liver toxicity. Choice D, weight loss, is not the correct answer as topiramate is not associated with weight gain.

3. A client who takes metformin for diabetes mellitus type 2 is nothing by mouth (NPO) for surgery. What pre-op prescription should the practical nurse (PN) anticipate for this client's glucose management?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client taking metformin for diabetes mellitus type 2 is NPO for surgery, it is crucial to manage their glucose levels effectively. The best approach in this situation is to prescribe regular insulin subcutaneously according to a sliding scale based on the client's blood glucose levels. This method allows for precise adjustment of insulin doses to maintain blood glucose within the target range while the client is unable to take oral medications. Choices A and B are incorrect because metformin is typically held when a client is NPO, and oral antidiabetic agents may not provide sufficient glucose control. Choice C is incorrect as Novolin-N insulin given twice daily may not offer the flexibility needed for glucose management in a surgical setting where the client's intake is restricted.

4. When a patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium, the nurse should monitor for potential side effects. The correct answer is dry mouth. Ipratropium can cause dry mouth as a common side effect due to its anticholinergic effects. This side effect can impact the patient's oral health and comfort, requiring close monitoring and appropriate interventions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ipratropium is an anticholinergic medication commonly used in COPD. One of the most common side effects of anticholinergics is dry mouth due to the inhibition of salivary gland function. Tachycardia (Choice B) is not a typical side effect of ipratropium. Insomnia (Choice C) is also not a common side effect of this medication. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not associated with ipratropium use. Therefore, the correct side effect to monitor for in a patient prescribed ipratropium is dry mouth.

5. A female client who started chemotherapy three days ago for cancer of the breast calls the clinic reporting that she is so upset she cannot sleep. The client has several PRN medications available. Which drug should the nurse instruct her to take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen and diphenhydramine help with sleep without severe side effects.

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A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin glargine. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?
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