Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Bruising
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Bruising is a common sign of potential bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Monitoring for bruising is essential as it can indicate a risk of bleeding that needs further assessment and management. Elevated blood pressure, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting are not direct signs of potential bleeding associated with warfarin therapy.

2. An older adult with iron deficiency anemia is being discharged with iron supplements, which information should the nurse include in the discharge?

• A. Take the tablet with a daily multivitamin
• B. Crush the tablet and mix it with pudding
• C. Bedtime is the best time to take the tablet
• D. Wait 2 hours after meals to take the tablet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to wait 2 hours after meals before taking the iron tablet. This is important to ensure better absorption and efficacy of the iron supplement. Taking the tablet with a daily multivitamin (Choice A) may interfere with iron absorption due to interactions with other minerals. Crushing the tablet and mixing it with pudding (Choice B) can alter the effectiveness of the medication. While bedtime (Choice C) may be convenient, waiting after meals is crucial for optimal iron absorption.

3. A client with bipolar disorder is taking lithium. Which client assessment data would indicate a potential adverse effect of lithium therapy?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth and increased thirst
• C. Tremors and polyuria
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client taking lithium, dry mouth and increased thirst are indicators of potential adverse effects. Lithium can lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, causing polyuria and subsequent increased thirst due to impaired water reabsorption in the kidneys. Tremors can also be a sign of lithium toxicity. Monitoring and recognizing these symptoms are crucial in managing lithium therapy and preventing further complications.

4. The healthcare provider is discharging a patient with a new prescription for ranitidine (Zantac). Which information would be important to include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Thrombolytic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) may occur
• B. Aspirin should not be taken with this medication
• C. The patient may experience iron deficiency anemia
• D. The patient may experience restlessness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. It is important to include information that ranitidine may cause restlessness as a side effect in some patients. Educating the patient about possible side effects helps in early recognition and management, improving medication adherence and patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not pertain to common side effects or specific considerations related to ranitidine use.

5. A client is prescribed diazepam for muscle spasms. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Avoid drinking alcohol
• B. Take with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset
• C. Increase fluid intake
• D. Take medication with grapefruit juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed diazepam for muscle spasms is to avoid drinking alcohol. Diazepam can cause drowsiness and enhance the effects of alcohol, leading to increased sedation and impaired cognitive function. Clients should be advised to avoid alcohol consumption while taking diazepam to prevent these adverse effects and ensure their safety.

Similar Questions