Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for further evaluation and possible intervention?

• A. A client who is at 28 weeks gestation and has a negative Coombs titer
• B. A client who is 39 weeks of gestation and has a negative contraction stress test
• C. A client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has a biophysical profile of 6
• D. A client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has an L/S ratio of 2:1

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A biophysical profile of 6 at 35 weeks of gestation indicates a need for further evaluation and possible intervention. A negative Coombs titer at 28 weeks gestation (Choice A) is within normal limits. A negative contraction stress test at 39 weeks gestation (Choice B) is expected as the pregnancy nears term. An L/S ratio of 2:1 at 37 weeks of gestation (Choice D) is consistent with fetal lung maturity.

2. You are caring for a patient who has no cognitive functioning but only basic human functions such as opening the eyes and the sleep-wake cycle. What level of consciousness does this patient have?

• A. Obtunded
• B. A persistent vegetative state
• C. Locked-in syndrome
• D. Brain death

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A persistent vegetative state is characterized by the absence of cognitive functioning while basic human functions like the sleep-wake cycle are retained. In this state, the patient shows reflex movements and basic responses to stimuli but lacks awareness or higher mental functions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Obtunded refers to a decreased level of consciousness, not the absence of cognitive functioning. C) Locked-in syndrome is a condition where the patient is aware and awake but cannot move or communicate due to complete paralysis of nearly all voluntary muscles except for vertical eye movements and blinking. D) Brain death is the irreversible cessation of all brain activity, including the brainstem, leading to the loss of all functions of the brain.

3. Which manifestation should the nurse expect to assess in a patient with fluid volume deficit?

• A. Headache and muscle cramps
• B. Dyspnea and respiratory crackles
• C. Increased pulse rate and blood pressure
• D. Orthostatic hypotension and flat neck veins

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension and flat neck veins are classic manifestations of fluid volume deficit. When the body loses fluid, blood volume decreases, leading to decreased venous return to the heart, resulting in orthostatic hypotension and flat neck veins. Choices A, B, and C are more indicative of other conditions such as dehydration, respiratory issues, or compensatory mechanisms in response to hypovolemia, respectively.

4. You are performing a neurological assessment of your adolescent patient. The patient has the Moro reflex. How should you interpret this neurological assessment finding?

• A. It is normal among adolescents.
• B. It indicates that the patient has an intact peripheral nervous system.
• C. It indicates that the patient has an intact central nervous system.
• D. It is not a normal finding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is typically present in infants up to around 4-6 months of age and is characterized by the infant's response to a sudden loss of support or loud noise. It is not a normal finding in adolescents or older individuals. Therefore, if an adolescent patient exhibits the Moro reflex during a neurological assessment, it is considered abnormal and warrants further evaluation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the Moro reflex is not expected or normal among adolescents and does not specifically indicate the status of either the peripheral or central nervous system in this age group.

5. Which of the following strategies can help improve patient adherence to treatment plans?

• A. Providing clear and understandable instructions
• B. Using medical jargon
• C. Limiting patient education
• D. Ignoring patient feedback

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Providing clear and understandable instructions can help improve patient adherence to treatment plans. Clear instructions help patients better understand their treatment plans, leading to increased compliance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Using medical jargon can confuse patients and reduce adherence. Limiting patient education deprives patients of essential information needed for adherence. Ignoring patient feedback can lead to misunderstandings and hinder the patient's commitment to the treatment plan.

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