a nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for conference
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank

1. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for further evaluation and possible intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A biophysical profile of 6 at 35 weeks of gestation indicates a need for further evaluation and possible intervention. A negative Coombs titer at 28 weeks gestation (Choice A) is within normal limits. A negative contraction stress test at 39 weeks gestation (Choice B) is expected as the pregnancy nears term. An L/S ratio of 2:1 at 37 weeks of gestation (Choice D) is consistent with fetal lung maturity.

2. A nurse in the emergency department is preparing to care for a client who arrived via ambulance. The client is disoriented and has a cardiac arrhythmia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where a client is disoriented and has a cardiac arrhythmia, obtaining written consent may not be possible due to the urgency of the situation. The priority is to provide immediate treatment to ensure patient safety. Contacting the next of kin or having the client sign a consent form would cause unnecessary delays in providing critical care. Notifying risk management before initiating treatment is not the most appropriate action when dealing with a time-sensitive situation like a cardiac arrhythmia.

3. The doctor has ordered 1,000 cc of intravenous fluid every 8 hours. You will be using intravenous tubing that delivers 20 cc/drop. At what rate will you adjust the intravenous fluid flow? _____ gtts per minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the rate: 1000 cc/8 hours = 125 cc/hour. 125 cc/hour * 1 drop/20 cc * 1 hour/60 minutes = 40 gtts/min. Therefore, the correct answer is 40 gtts/min. Choice A (38 gtts/min) is incorrect as it doesn't match the calculation result. Choice B (42 gtts/min) is incorrect as it is not the calculated rate. Choice C (50 gtts/min) is incorrect as it is not the calculated rate either.

4. A nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus level is 2.0 mg/dL. Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcoholism. Alcoholism can lead to hypophosphatemia due to poor dietary intake and other factors. Excessive alcohol consumption can result in malnutrition, particularly a deficiency in phosphorus. Choices B, C, and D are unlikely to cause low serum phosphorus levels. Renal insufficiency is more likely to cause hyperphosphatemia, hypoparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcemia rather than hypophosphatemia, and tumor lysis syndrome typically presents with hyperphosphatemia due to the release of intracellular phosphate.

5. Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An avulsion fracture occurs when a part of the bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an open fracture where the bone penetrates the skin. Choice B is incorrect as a pathological fracture results from an underlying disease weakening the bone, not physical trauma. Choice C is incorrect as a greenstick fracture involves the bone bending but not completely breaking.

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