HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Quizlet
1. A client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes receives insulin. He asks the nurse why he can't just take pills instead. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Insulin must be injected because it needs to work quickly.
- B. Insulin can't be in a pill because it is destroyed in stomach acid.
- C. Have you talked to your doctor about taking pills instead?
- D. I know it is tough, but you will get used to the shots soon.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because insulin cannot be taken orally as it gets destroyed by stomach acid. Choice A is incorrect as the speed of action is not the reason why insulin can't be in pill form. Choice C is incorrect as it doesn't address the nature of insulin. Choice D is incorrect as it doesn't provide a factual reason why insulin can't be in pill form.
2. A nurse caring for a group of clients reviews the electrolyte laboratory results and notes a sodium level of 130 mEq/L on one client's laboratory report. The nurse understands that which client is at highest risk for the development of a sodium value at this level?
- A. The client with renal failure
- B. The client who is taking diuretics
- C. The client with hyperaldosteronism
- D. The client who is taking corticosteroids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking diuretics are at risk for hyponatremia due to excessive sodium loss. In this scenario, a sodium level of 130 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is commonly associated with diuretic use. Options A, C, and D are not the highest risk factors for developing low sodium levels in this context. Renal failure, hyperaldosteronism, and corticosteroid use are not directly linked to sodium loss as seen with diuretics.
3. Which statement about appendicitis is accurate and true?
- A. Appendicitis is more common among females than males.
- B. A high fiber diet is a risk factor associated with appendicitis.
- C. Left lower quadrant pain is suggestive of appendicitis.
- D. McBurney's point tenderness is suggestive of appendicitis.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: McBurney's point tenderness is suggestive of appendicitis. McBurney's point is located in the right lower abdomen and tenderness at this point is a classic sign of appendicitis. Choice A is incorrect as appendicitis is slightly more common in males than females. Choice B is incorrect as a high fiber diet is actually considered to be protective against appendicitis. Choice C is incorrect as appendicitis typically presents with pain in the right lower quadrant, not the left.
4. Which of the following is a benefit of the U.S. health-care system?
- A. With cost savings from technology, more Americans now have health-care insurance.
- B. Quality of care has improved in the United States.
- C. Care in the United States has shifted to a prevention focus rather than an illness focus.
- D. The use of technology is projected to decrease health-care costs and improve clinical outcomes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the use of technology and electronic health records is projected to decrease health-care costs and improve clinical outcomes, quality, and safety. Choice A is incorrect because it states that very few Americans have no health-care insurance, which is not a benefit of the U.S. health-care system. Choice B may be true, but it does not directly address a benefit of the health-care system. Choice C is not necessarily a benefit but rather a shift in focus, so it is also incorrect.
5. A charge nurse on an obstetrical unit is preparing the shift assignment. Which of the following clients should be assigned to an RN who has floated from a medical-surgical unit?
- A. A client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has premature rupture of membranes
- B. A multigravida client who has preeclampsia and is receiving misoprostol for induction of labor
- C. A primigravida client who is 1 day postoperative following a Cesarean section and has a PCA pump
- D. A client who has gestational diabetes and is receiving biweekly nonstress tests
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A nurse who floated from a medical-surgical unit would be appropriate to care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a Cesarean section and has a PCA pump. This client requires monitoring of the postoperative incision site, pain management through the PCA pump, and assessment for any signs of complications related to the surgery. Assigning this client to an RN with experience in postoperative care aligns with providing specialized and appropriate care. Choices A, B, and D involve conditions or procedures specific to obstetrics that would be better managed by a nurse with obstetrical experience, making them incorrect choices for the floated RN.
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