Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with severe dehydration. What is the most important assessment finding for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Changes in mental status
• B. Urine output and color
• C. Blood pressure and heart rate
• D. Skin turgor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Changes in mental status are crucial to monitor in a client with severe dehydration. Altered mental status, such as confusion or lethargy, can indicate severe dehydration and potential complications like electrolyte imbalances affecting the brain. Monitoring urine output and color (choice B) is essential but may not provide immediate signs of severe dehydration. While monitoring blood pressure and heart rate (choice C) is important, changes in mental status take precedence as they can indicate more critical conditions. Skin turgor (choice D) is a valuable assessment for dehydration, but changes in mental status take priority due to their direct correlation with severe dehydration.

2. What intervention should the nurse implement during the administration of a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent via an IV site in the client's arm?

• A. Assess IV site frequently for signs of extravasation
• B. Monitor capillary refill distal to the infusion site
• C. Apply a topical anesthetic at the infusion site for burning
• D. Explain that temporary burning at the IV site may occur

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should implement during the administration of a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent via an IV site in the client's arm is to assess the IV site frequently for signs of extravasation. Vesicants are agents that can cause tissue damage if they leak into the surrounding tissues. Monitoring for signs of extravasation such as swelling, pain, or redness is crucial to prevent tissue damage and ensure prompt intervention if extravasation occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring capillary refill, applying a topical anesthetic for burning, and explaining temporary burning do not directly address the risk of extravasation associated with vesicant chemotherapeutic agents.

3. The nurse is caring for a laboring 22-year-old primigravida following administration of regional anesthesia. In planning care for this client, what nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach
• B. Teaching the client how to push to decrease the length of the second stage of labor
• C. Timing and recording uterine contractions
• D. Positioning the client for proper distribution of anesthesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention for a laboring client following administration of regional anesthesia is to position the client for proper distribution of anesthesia. Proper positioning ensures effective pain management during labor, optimizing the effects of the regional anesthesia. While raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach (choice A) is important for safety, teaching the client how to push (choice B) and timing and recording uterine contractions (choice C) are vital aspects of care but are not the highest priority immediately after administering regional anesthesia.

4. When planning to contact the healthcare provider about a client's need for a belt restraint, what information is most important to report?

• A. The presence and location of any pressure ulcers.
• B. Measures already taken to maintain client safety.
• C. Any special mattresses on the client’s bed.
• D. Current vital signs and oxygen saturation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When reporting to the healthcare provider about a client's need for a belt restraint, it is crucial to provide information on the measures already taken to maintain client safety. This includes detailing alternative strategies that have been tried before considering restraint use. This information helps the healthcare provider assess the situation comprehensively and explore other safety interventions. Choices A, C, and D, though relevant to the client's care, are not as critical to report when discussing the need for a belt restraint. Pressure ulcers (Choice A) are important but not directly related to the need for a belt restraint. The presence of special mattresses (Choice C) may influence overall care but is not the most pertinent information when considering restraints. Current vital signs and oxygen saturation (Choice D) are essential for the client's overall assessment but do not directly address the need for a belt restraint.

5. A mother brings her child, who has a history of asthma, to the emergency room. The child is wheezing and speaking one word between each breath. The child is anxious, tachycardic, and has labored respirations. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Type of inhaler the child typically uses on a regular basis
• B. Frequency of rescue inhaler use during the week
• C. Last dose and type of rescue inhaler used by the child
• D. Type of allergen exposure or trigger for the current episode

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because knowing the last dose and type of rescue inhaler used helps assess if the child has received adequate treatment and if further intervention is needed. This information is crucial in managing an acute asthma exacerbation. Choice A, the type of inhaler the child typically uses, is less critical during an emergency. Choice B, the frequency of rescue inhaler use during the week, is important for general asthma management but does not provide immediate guidance in the acute situation. Choice D, the type of allergen exposure or trigger, is more relevant for preventive strategies and does not directly impact the immediate treatment of the child's acute asthma attack.

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