HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam
1. A client is admitted with severe dehydration. What is the most important assessment finding for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Changes in mental status
- B. Urine output and color
- C. Blood pressure and heart rate
- D. Skin turgor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Changes in mental status are crucial to monitor in a client with severe dehydration. Altered mental status, such as confusion or lethargy, can indicate severe dehydration and potential complications like electrolyte imbalances affecting the brain. Monitoring urine output and color (choice B) is essential but may not provide immediate signs of severe dehydration. While monitoring blood pressure and heart rate (choice C) is important, changes in mental status take precedence as they can indicate more critical conditions. Skin turgor (choice D) is a valuable assessment for dehydration, but changes in mental status take priority due to their direct correlation with severe dehydration.
2. A client with acute renal failure (ARF) is admitted for uncontrolled type 1 diabetes mellitus and hyperkalemia. The nurse administers an IV dose of regular insulin per sliding scale. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Monitor the client’s cardiac activity via telemetry.
- B. Maintain venous access with an infusion of normal saline.
- C. Assess glucose levels via finger stick every 4 to 6 hours.
- D. Evaluate hourly urine output for the return of normal renal function.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring cardiac activity is crucial in this scenario because hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. Regular monitoring of the client’s cardiac activity via telemetry allows for early detection of any potential cardiac complications. Maintaining venous access with a normal saline infusion is important for hydration but does not address the immediate risk of cardiac dysrhythmias posed by hyperkalemia. Assessing glucose levels is essential in diabetes management but is not the priority when dealing with hyperkalemia-induced cardiac risks. Evaluating hourly urine output for the return of normal renal function is important in ARF but is not as urgent as monitoring the client's cardiac activity in the context of hyperkalemia.
3. A client receives a prescription for acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) 1.4 grams per nasogastric tube q4 hours. Acetylcysteine is available as a 10% solution (10 grams/100ml). How many ml of the 10% solution should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 7
- B. 10
- C. 14
- D. 1.4 grams of acetylcysteine is equivalent to 14 ml of a 10% solution.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To determine the amount of the 10% acetylcysteine solution to administer, convert the 1.4 grams to milligrams (1.4 grams = 1400 mg). Then, as the 10% solution contains 10 grams (10,000 mg) per 100 ml, it means there are 1000 mg of acetylcysteine in every 10 ml of the solution (10,000 mg / 100 ml = 100 mg/ml). Therefore, to administer 1400 mg (1.4 grams) of acetylcysteine, the nurse should give 14 ml of the 10% solution. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not accurately convert the amount of acetylcysteine to the corresponding volume of the 10% solution.
4. The nurse is planning care for a family whose children did not receive childhood immunizations. After one of the children contracted mumps, the father is diagnosed with orchitis. Which intervention should be included in the father's plan of care?
- A. Use of bedrest with scrotal support
- B. Administration of antibiotics for 10 days
- C. Applying heat to promote the healing process
- D. Using an ice pack to reduce scrotal pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For orchitis, the recommended intervention is bedrest with scrotal support. This helps reduce swelling and discomfort in the scrotum. Antibiotics are generally not required for viral orchitis, so administering antibiotics for 10 days (Choice B) is not indicated. Applying heat (Choice C) may worsen swelling and should be avoided. Using an ice pack (Choice D) is not the preferred method for managing orchitis; it may not be as effective as providing support and rest for the scrotum.
5. Identify the placement of the stapes footplate into the bony labyrinth.
- A. Fenestra vestibuli
- B. Fenestra cochleae
- C. Tympanic membrane
- D. Round window
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fenestra vestibuli. The stapes footplate is placed into the fenestra vestibuli of the bony labyrinth. This structure is also known as the oval window and is located at the junction of the middle ear and inner ear. Choice B, Fenestra cochleae, is incorrect as this opening is also known as the round window and is located near the base of the cochlea. Choice C, Tympanic membrane, is incorrect as it is also known as the eardrum and separates the external ear from the middle ear. Choice D, Round window, is incorrect as it is the opening covered by the secondary tympanic membrane and is important for the dissipation of sound waves in the cochlea.
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