Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with severe dehydration. What is the most important assessment finding for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Changes in mental status
• B. Urine output and color
• C. Blood pressure and heart rate
• D. Skin turgor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Changes in mental status are crucial to monitor in a client with severe dehydration. Altered mental status, such as confusion or lethargy, can indicate severe dehydration and potential complications like electrolyte imbalances affecting the brain. Monitoring urine output and color (choice B) is essential but may not provide immediate signs of severe dehydration. While monitoring blood pressure and heart rate (choice C) is important, changes in mental status take precedence as they can indicate more critical conditions. Skin turgor (choice D) is a valuable assessment for dehydration, but changes in mental status take priority due to their direct correlation with severe dehydration.

2. Two hours after delivering a 9-pound infant, a client saturates a perineal pad every 15 minutes. Although an IV containing Pitocin is infusing, her uterus remains boggy, even with massage. The healthcare provider prescribes methylergometrine maleate (Methergine) 0.2 mg IM STAT. Which complication should the nurse be alert to this client developing?

• A. Decreased respiratory rate
• B. Increased temperature
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypertension. Methylergometrine maleate (Methergine) is a medication used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage by causing uterine contractions. One of the potential side effects is hypertension. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's blood pressure after administering Methergine. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Methergine is not known to cause decreased respiratory rate, increased temperature, or tachycardia.

3. A client who will be going to surgery states no known allergies to any medications. What is the most important nursing action for the nurse to implement next?

• A. Assess client’s knowledge of an allergic response
• B. Record 'no known drug allergies' on the preoperative checklist
• C. Flag 'no known drug allergies' on the front of the chart
• D. Assess client’s allergies to non-drug substances

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important action to take in this situation is to record 'no known drug allergies' on the preoperative checklist. This ensures that all healthcare staff involved in the surgery are aware of the client's stated lack of drug allergies, helping to prevent any potential adverse reactions. Assessing the client's knowledge of an allergic response (Choice A) may be valuable but is not the most crucial action at this point. Flagging 'no known drug allergies' on the front of the chart (Choice C) is less practical and visible compared to documenting it on the preoperative checklist. Assessing the client’s allergies to non-drug substances (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario where the focus is on medications due to the upcoming surgery.

4. Which instruction is most important for the client who receives a new prescription for risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis?

• A. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication
• B. Increase intake of foods rich in vitamin D
• C. Begin a low-impact exercise routine
• D. Take the medication with a full glass of water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important instruction for a client receiving risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. Risedronate sodium can cause esophageal irritation, and staying upright helps prevent this side effect. While increasing vitamin D intake, starting a low-impact exercise routine, and taking the medication with a full glass of water are all beneficial for managing osteoporosis, the immediate need is to prevent esophageal irritation caused by risedronate sodium.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure who reports nocturia and dyspnea. The nurse identifies pulsus alternans and crackles in all lung fields. Which action is best to include in the client’s plan of care?

• A. Begin client education about positive inotropic medications.
• B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position.
• C. Prepare the client for an emergency cardiac catheterization.
• D. Monitor serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of left-sided heart failure, such as dyspnea, nocturia, pulsus alternans, and crackles in all lung fields. Positive inotropic medications are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure to improve cardiac contractility and output. Therefore, beginning client education about positive inotropic medications is the best action to include in the client's plan of care. Choice B is incorrect because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not indicated in the management of left-sided heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as emergency cardiac catheterization is not typically the initial intervention for left-sided heart failure. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels is more pertinent to assessing for myocardial infarction rather than managing heart failure.

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