HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Test Bank
1. Two weeks following a Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy), a client develops nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after every meal. When the nurse develops a teaching plan for this client, which expected outcome statement is the most relevant?
- A. Describes a schedule for antacid use in combination with other prescribed medications
- B. Selects a pattern of small meals interspersed with fluid intake
- C. Commits to engaging in a variety of stress reduction techniques
- D. Expresses a commitment to decrease nicotine intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The symptoms described are indicative of dumping syndrome, a common complication following a Billroth II procedure. Dumping syndrome presents with symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after meals. To manage these symptoms effectively, the client should opt for small, frequent meals and avoid consuming fluids along with meals. Choice A is inaccurate because antacid use does not directly address the symptoms of dumping syndrome. Choice C is irrelevant as stress reduction techniques are not the primary intervention for dumping syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the symptoms experienced by the client, making it an inappropriate choice.
2. An older male client arrives at the clinic complaining that his bladder always feels full. He complains of a weak urine flow, frequent dribbling after voiding, and increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating his urine stream. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Palpate the client’s suprapubic area for distention
- B. Advise the client to maintain a voiding diary for one week
- C. Instruct the client in effective techniques for cleansing the glans penis
- D. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Advising the client to maintain a voiding diary is the appropriate action in this case. A voiding diary helps track symptoms and patterns essential for diagnosing conditions like benign prostatic hyperplasia or other urinary issues. Palpating the client’s suprapubic area for distention (Choice A) may provide information about bladder fullness but does not address the need for tracking symptoms. Instructing the client in techniques for cleansing the glans penis (Choice C) is not relevant to the client's urinary complaints. Obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity (Choice D) may be necessary but does not directly address the client's symptoms of weak urine flow and difficulty initiating the urine stream.
3. An angry client screams at the emergency department triage nurse, “I’ve been waiting here for two hours! You and the staff are incompetent”. What is the best response for the nurse to make?
- A. The emergency department is very busy at this time.
- B. I’ll let you see the doctor next because you’ve waited so long.
- C. I’m doing the best I can for the sickest clients first.
- D. I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: The best response for the nurse is to choose option D, 'I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.' This response demonstrates empathy and validates the client's feelings, helping to defuse the situation. Choice A is not the best response as it does not directly address the client's emotions or concerns. Choice B is inappropriate as it gives preferential treatment based on the client's behavior. Choice C, while true, does not acknowledge the client's frustration or offer empathy.
4. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has undergone abdominal surgery. What instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid heavy lifting for at least 6 weeks
- B. Limit fluid intake to reduce the risk of infection
- C. Resume normal activities as soon as possible
- D. Avoid driving for at least 2 weeks
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid heavy lifting for at least 6 weeks.' After abdominal surgery, it is essential to avoid heavy lifting to prevent complications such as incisional hernias and support proper healing. Choice B, 'Limit fluid intake to reduce the risk of infection,' is incorrect because adequate fluid intake is necessary for wound healing and preventing dehydration. Choice C, 'Resume normal activities as soon as possible,' is incorrect as it may increase the risk of complications and delay healing. Choice D, 'Avoid driving for at least 2 weeks,' is incorrect as the restriction on driving may vary depending on the type of surgery and individual recovery.
5. A 46-year-old male client who had a myocardial infarction 24 hours ago comes to the nurse’s station fully dressed and wanting to go home. He tells the nurse that he is feeling much better at this time. Based on this behavior, which nursing problem should the nurse formulate?
- A. Anxiety related to treatment plan
- B. Deficient knowledge of lifestyle changes
- C. Ineffective coping related to denial
- D. Decisional conflict due to stress
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Ineffective coping related to denial.' The client's behavior of wanting to go home and feeling much better shortly after a myocardial infarction indicates denial of the severity of his condition. This denial can lead to ineffective coping mechanisms, hindering his recovery and treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the client's behavior is not primarily driven by anxiety about the treatment plan, deficient knowledge of lifestyle changes, or decisional conflict due to stress, but rather by denial and ineffective coping mechanisms.
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