Nursing Elites

1. A guardian reports that a 4-year-old child is waking up with nightmares. Which of the following interventions should the nurse suggest?

• A. Offer the child a large snack before bedtime.
• B. Allow the child to watch an extra 30 minutes of TV in the evening.
• C. Have the child go to bed at a consistent time every day.
• D. Increase physical activity before bedtime.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to have the child go to bed at a consistent time every day. Consistent bedtime routines can help reduce nightmares by providing the child with a sense of security and stability. Offering a large snack before bedtime or allowing extra TV time may disrupt sleep patterns and lead to nightmares. Increasing physical activity before bedtime could have the opposite effect and make it harder for the child to fall asleep.

2. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
• B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next morning.
• C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
• D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention is to give the missed dose at 1300 and adjust the schedule to administer daily at 1300. This approach ensures that the client receives the correct total daily dose of levofloxacin. Choice A is incorrect because contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form would not address the immediate need to administer the missed dose. Choice B is incorrect as administering the missed dose at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next morning would result in a missed dose for that day. Choice C is not the best course of action as notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report should come after addressing the immediate need to administer the missed dose and adjusting the schedule for future doses.

3. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
• B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
• C. Measure the client's vital signs.
• D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin sublingually. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is the priority action for a client with chest pain and a history of coronary artery disease. Nitroglycerin helps dilate the coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and providing rapid relief of chest pain. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG, measuring vital signs, and administering oxygen are important actions but should follow the administration of nitroglycerin in the management of chest pain in a client with coronary artery disease.

4. A client with a fractured femur has a BP of 140/94 mmHg and denies any history of HTN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Request a prescription for an antihypertensive medication.
• B. Ask the client if they are having pain.
• C. Request a prescription for an antianxiety medication.
• D. Return in 30 minutes to recheck the client’s BP.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to ask the client if they are having pain. Pain can lead to temporary increases in blood pressure. Addressing pain as a potential cause is the initial step before considering medication adjustments. Requesting an antihypertensive medication or an antianxiety medication without assessing pain first would not address the immediate concern. Returning to recheck the BP can be done after addressing the potential pain issue.

5. The healthcare provider attaches a pulse oximeter to a client's fingers and obtains an oxygen saturation reading of 91%. Which assessment finding most likely contributes to this reading?

• A. BP 142/88 mmHg
• B. 2+ edema of fingers and hands
• C. Radial pulse volume is +3
• D. Capillary refill time is 2 seconds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Edema, indicated by 2+ edema of fingers and hands, can impair blood flow and peripheral perfusion, leading to reduced oxygen saturation readings on a pulse oximeter. High blood pressure (choice A) would not directly affect oxygen saturation readings. Radial pulse volume (choice C) and capillary refill time (choice D) are more related to assessing circulation rather than contributing significantly to oxygen saturation readings.

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