HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. The nurse is caring for a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Cloudy urine
- B. Burning sensation during urination
- C. Foul-smelling urine
- D. Blood in the urine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The presence of blood in the urine in a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) may indicate a more severe infection, such as pyelonephritis, or complications like kidney stones or bladder cancer. Therefore, this finding should be reported immediately for further evaluation and management. Cloudy urine, burning sensation during urination, and foul-smelling urine are common symptoms of UTI and may not necessarily signify an urgent need for immediate reporting compared to the presence of blood in the urine.
2. A client with a history of heart failure presents to the clinic with a 2-day history of weight gain, swelling in the legs, and shortness of breath. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action?
- A. Perform a physical assessment
- B. Review the client's medication list
- C. Instruct the client to elevate the legs
- D. Obtain a detailed dietary history
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Performing a physical assessment is the most appropriate initial nursing action in this scenario. A thorough physical assessment helps evaluate the client's current condition, severity of symptoms, and identify any immediate concerns. This assessment can provide crucial information to guide further interventions and treatment. Reviewing the client's medication list (choice B) is important but may not address the immediate need for assessing the client's current status. Instructing the client to elevate the legs (choice C) may be beneficial but should come after a thorough assessment. Obtaining a detailed dietary history (choice D) is relevant for heart failure management but is not the most urgent initial action when the client presents with acute symptoms like weight gain, leg swelling, and shortness of breath.
3. Which of the following statements is true of sickle-cell anemia?
- A. It is typically managed with treatments such as pain relief medications.
- B. It is caused by a mutation in the beta-globin gene.
- C. It leads to the obstruction of small blood vessels and decreased oxygen delivery.
- D. It is more prevalent in individuals of African, Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, and Indian descent.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sickle-cell anemia results from a mutation in the beta-globin gene, causing red blood cells to become sickle-shaped. These misshapen cells can obstruct small blood vessels, leading to reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sickle-cell anemia is typically managed with treatments such as pain relief medications, hydration, and in severe cases, blood transfusions. It is caused by a specific mutation in the beta-globin gene, not by the inability to metabolize phenylalanine. Additionally, sickle-cell anemia is more prevalent in individuals of African, Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, and Indian descent, not exclusive to any specific gender.
4. During the client’s initial prenatal visit, which of the following would indicate a need for further assessment?
- A. History of diabetes for 6 years.
- B. Exercises three times a week.
- C. Occasional use of over-the-counter pain relievers.
- D. Maternal age 30 years.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A history of diabetes for 6 years indicates a pre-existing medical condition that can significantly impact both the mother and the developing fetus during pregnancy. This necessitates further assessment and monitoring to manage potential complications. Regular exercise (Choice B) is generally beneficial during pregnancy and does not raise immediate concerns. Occasional use of over-the-counter pain relievers (Choice C) is common and does not necessarily indicate a need for further assessment during the initial visit. Maternal age of 30 years (Choice D) falls within the normal range for childbearing and is not a standalone factor requiring immediate further assessment.
5. A school nurse is teaching parents of school-age children about the importance of immunizations for childhood communicable diseases. What preventable disease may cause the complication of encephalitis?
- A. Varicella
- B. Scarlet fever
- C. Poliomyelitis
- D. Whooping cough
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Varicella (chickenpox), choice A. Varicella can lead to the complication of encephalitis, which is the inflammation of the brain. Scarlet fever (choice B) is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria and does not typically lead to encephalitis. Poliomyelitis (choice C) is a viral infection that affects the nervous system but does not directly cause encephalitis. Whooping cough (choice D), also known as pertussis, primarily affects the respiratory system and does not commonly result in encephalitis.