HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Questions
1. A female client refuses to take an oral hypoglycemic agent because she believes that the drug is being administered as part of an elaborate plan by the Mafia to harm her. Which nursing intervention is most important to include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Reassure the client that no one will harm her while she is in the hospital.
- B. Ask the healthcare provider to give the client the medication.
- C. Explain the importance of taking the diabetic medication.
- D. Reassess the client's mental status for thought processes and content.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Reassessing the client's mental status is the most important intervention as it is crucial to address the client's delusional thinking. By assessing the client's thought processes and content, the nurse can gain insight into the client's beliefs and tailor interventions accordingly. Reassuring the client that no harm will come to her, asking the healthcare provider to give the medication, or simply explaining the importance of taking the medication may not effectively address the underlying issue of delusional beliefs.
2. A client who has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia tells the LPN/LVN, 'I hear voices telling me to hurt myself.' What is the most appropriate nursing action?
- A. Encourage the client to ignore the voices.
- B. Tell the client that the voices will go away with medication.
- C. Monitor the client for signs of self-harm.
- D. Refer the client for a psychiatric evaluation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to refer the client for a psychiatric evaluation. The client's statement indicating hearing voices telling them to hurt themselves is a serious concern and suggests a risk for self-harm. Referring the client for a psychiatric evaluation is crucial for further assessment and intervention by mental health professionals. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the voices may not address the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and does not address the immediate risk. Choice C is not as comprehensive as referring for a psychiatric evaluation, which is necessary in this situation.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing severe anxiety. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?
- A. Instruct the client to take deep breaths and focus on the present.
- B. Encourage the client to discuss their fears in detail.
- C. Distract the client with a humorous story or anecdote.
- D. Leave the client alone to process their emotions.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client experiencing severe anxiety is to instruct the client to take deep breaths and focus on the present. Deep breathing can help reduce the physiological symptoms of anxiety and provide the client with a way to regain control over their emotions. Choice B is incorrect as discussing fears in detail may escalate anxiety levels. Choice C is inappropriate as distracting the client may not address the root cause of anxiety. Choice D is not recommended as leaving the client alone can increase feelings of isolation and distress.
4. How should the RN respond to the mother?
- A. Ask the mother if she has ever thought about harming herself or her child.
- B. Reassure the mother that her child will achieve some growth and development milestones.
- C. Determine if the mother has other children who do not have developmental disabilities.
- D. Encourage the mother to write her thoughts and feelings in a journal.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to ask the mother if she has ever thought about harming herself or her child. This is crucial to assess for suicidal or homicidal thoughts, ensuring the safety of both the mother and the child. Reassuring the mother about achieving some milestones may not address her immediate emotional distress. Inquiring about other children's developmental status is not the priority when safety concerns are present. While journaling can be therapeutic, in this situation, addressing safety takes precedence.
5. A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia is still withdrawn, unkempt, and unmotivated to get out of bed. A mental health aide asks the nurse why the client is this way after being on fluphenazine (Prolix) 10 mg for 7 days. The LPN/LVN should tell the health aide:
- A. Prolixin is the most effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
- B. The client will be less withdrawn and unmotivated when the Prolixin takes effect.
- C. The client's Prolixin dose probably needs to be increased again.
- D. Lack of motivation is a common side effect of the Prolixin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prolixin is more effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions, rather than negative symptoms like withdrawal and lack of motivation.
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