Nursing Elites

1. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed methimazole. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Agranulocytosis
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Agranulocytosis. Methimazole, used to treat hyperthyroidism, can lead to agranulocytosis, a severe decrease in white blood cells. This condition increases the risk of infections and requires immediate medical attention. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of methimazole. Bradycardia (choice C) is unlikely as methimazole tends to have minimal effects on heart rate. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is not associated with methimazole use.

2. Which is a long-term complication of cleft lip and palate?

• A. Cognitive impairment
• B. Altered growth and development
• C. Faulty dentition
• D. Physical abilities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Faulty dentition.' The older child with cleft lip and palate may experience psychological difficulties due to the cosmetic appearance of the defect, issues with impaired speech, and faulty dentition. This can lead to problems with dental alignment, crowding, missing or malformed teeth, and other dental issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as cognitive impairment, altered growth and development, and physical abilities are not typically considered long-term complications of cleft lip and palate.

3. Which dietary modification is most appropriate for a client with nephrotic syndrome?

• A. High protein, low sodium
• B. Low protein, high sodium
• C. High protein, high potassium
• D. Low protein, low sodium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary modification for a client with nephrotic syndrome is a low protein, low sodium diet. This diet helps reduce the workload on the kidneys and manage edema, which are common issues in nephrotic syndrome. Choice A, high protein, low sodium, is not recommended because excessive protein intake can further strain the kidneys. Choice B, low protein, high sodium, is inappropriate as high sodium can worsen fluid retention and hypertension. Choice C, high protein, high potassium, is not ideal as high potassium levels can be problematic for individuals with kidney issues.

4. A client with a spinal cord injury at the level of T1 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Which symptom is indicative of this condition?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Severe headache
• D. Flushed skin below the level of injury

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. It is characterized by a sudden onset of severe hypertension, pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, and flushing of the skin above the level of injury. The severe headache is a key symptom resulting from uncontrolled hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as autonomic dysreflexia typically presents with hypertension, not hypotension, tachycardia, or flushed skin below the level of injury.

5. Based on this strip, what is the correct interpretation of this rhythm?

• A. Atrial fibrillation.
• B. Premature atrial fibrillation.
• C. AV block.
• D. Ventricular tachycardia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the rhythm strip is atrial fibrillation. This arrhythmia is characterized by an irregular heartbeat and the absence of distinct P waves. Choice B, premature atrial fibrillation, is incorrect as there is no indication of premature beats in the strip. Choice C, AV block, is also incorrect as there is no evidence of conduction delays between the atria and ventricles. Choice D, ventricular tachycardia, is not supported by the absence of wide QRS complexes typically seen in this arrhythmia.

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