HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A client is on bed rest following an abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings indicates the need to increase the frequency of position changes?
- A. Flat rash on the client's ankle
- B. Non-blanching red area over the client's trochanter
- C. Ecchymosis on the client's left shoulder
- D. Petechiae on the client's right anterior thigh
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The presence of a non-blanching red area over the client's trochanter is a concerning finding as it indicates possible pressure ulcer formation. This finding necessitates an increase in the frequency of position changes to prevent skin breakdown. Choices A, C, and D do not directly correlate with the need for increased position changes. A flat rash, ecchymosis, and petechiae may have different causes and would not be addressed by changing the client's position more frequently.
2. The healthcare professional prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The healthcare professional should regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute?
- A. 80
- B. 8
- C. 21
- D. 25
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the IV infusion, first determine the total drops to be infused over 8 hours. 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours means 125 ml per hour (1000 ml / 8 hours = 125 ml/hr). Since the infusion set delivers 10 drops per ml, 125 ml/hr x 10 drops/ml = 1250 drops/hr. To find drops per minute, divide the drops per hour by 60 (minutes in an hour): 1250 drops/hr / 60 minutes = 20.83 drops/minute, which rounds up to 21 drops per minute (Option C). This rate ensures the correct infusion rate over 8 hours. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect calculations and do not provide the appropriate infusion rate needed to administer the IV over the specified time period.
3. A client is incontinent of loose stool and is reporting a painful perineum. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
- A. Assess the client's perineum
- B. Administer pain medication
- C. Clean the area with a mild cleanser
- D. Apply a barrier cream to the affected area
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing the client's perineum is the priority nursing action in this situation. By checking the perineum, the nurse can evaluate for skin damage, irritation, infection, or other issues that may be causing the client's pain. This assessment is crucial to determine the appropriate interventions needed to address the client's discomfort and prevent complications. Administering pain medication, cleaning the area with a mild cleanser, or applying a barrier cream are important interventions but should follow the initial assessment of the perineum to ensure comprehensive care and effective management of the client's condition. Prioritizing assessment allows for a targeted and individualized approach to care, enhancing the client's overall well-being.
4. To use proper body mechanics while making an occupied bed for a client on bed rest, the nurse should:
- A. Place the bed in a high horizontal position
- B. Use a low bed position
- C. Bend at the waist
- D. Keep the bed flat and at a comfortable working height
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When making an occupied bed for a client on bed rest, the nurse should place the bed in a high horizontal position to promote better body mechanics. This positioning helps reduce strain on the nurse's back and promotes proper alignment while working. Using a low bed position can lead to awkward bending and increased risk of musculoskeletal injuries. Bending at the waist is discouraged as it can strain the back. Keeping the bed flat and at a comfortable working height may not provide the optimal ergonomic setup needed to prevent injury.
5. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.â€
- B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.â€
- C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.â€
- D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.â€
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.
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