Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to a medical nursing unit with a diagnosis of acute blindness. Many tests are performed, and there seems to be no organic reason why this client cannot see. The client became blind after witnessing a hit-and-run car accident, when a family of three was killed. A LPN/LVN suspects that the client may be experiencing a:

• A. Psychosis
• B. Repression
• C. Conversion Disorder
• D. Dissociative Disorder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's acute blindness without any organic cause following a traumatic event indicates a case of Conversion Disorder. Conversion Disorder involves the manifestation of physical symptoms due to psychological stressors. Psychosis (choice A) involves a loss of contact with reality, which is not evident here. Repression (choice B) is a defense mechanism that involves unconsciously blocking out thoughts. Dissociative Disorder (choice D) involves disruptions in memory, awareness, identity, or perception, which is not the primary issue in this case.

2. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has recently been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The client asks, 'Why do I have to take medication every day?' What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. The medication will help stabilize your mood and prevent mood swings.
• B. You will need to take this medication for the rest of your life.
• C. The medication will help you feel better and more in control of your emotions.
• D. The medication is needed to control your symptoms and help you function better.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response by the nurse is to explain that the medication will help stabilize the client's mood and prevent mood swings. This response provides the client with a clear understanding of how the medication works in managing bipolar disorder. Choice B is not the best response as it may cause unnecessary worry about lifelong medication dependence. Choice C is not as specific in addressing the purpose of the medication for bipolar disorder. Choice D is not as focused on the effect of the medication on mood stabilization, which is crucial in managing bipolar disorder.

3. A 30-year-old sales manager tells the nurse, 'I am thinking about a job change. I don't feel like I am living up to my potential.' Which of Maslow's developmental stages is the sales manager attempting to achieve?

• A. Self-Actualization
• B. Loving and Belonging
• C. Basic Needs
• D. Safety and Security

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Self-Actualization.' Self-actualization is the highest level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs, focusing on fulfilling one's full potential and achieving personal growth. In this scenario, the sales manager expressing a desire for a job change because they don't feel they are living up to their potential aligns with the characteristics of self-actualization. Choices B, C, and D represent lower levels of Maslow's hierarchy: 'Loving and Belonging' pertains to social needs, 'Basic Needs' encompass physiological and safety needs, and 'Safety and Security' are fundamental needs related to protection and stability.

4. A teenaged male client is admitted to the postoperative unit following open reduction of a fractured femur which occurred when he fell down the stairs at a party. The nurse notices needle marks on the client's arms and plans to observe for narcotic withdrawal. Early signs of narcotic withdrawal include which assessment findings?

• A. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness.
• B. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness.
• C. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils.
• D. Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps are early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness (Option A) are more indicative of severe withdrawal or overdose symptoms. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness (Option B) are not typically early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils (Option C) are more associated with opioid overdose rather than withdrawal. Monitoring for agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps is crucial for managing narcotic withdrawal symptoms effectively.

5. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor her frequently.
• B. Take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately.
• C. Describe the symptoms to the charge nurse and document them in the client's record.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of her medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.

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