Nursing Elites

1. A client has developed thrombophlebitis of the left leg. Which nursing intervention should be given the highest priority?

• A. Elevate leg on 2 pillows
• B. Apply support stockings
• C. Apply warm compresses
• D. Maintain complete bed rest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention for a client with thrombophlebitis of the left leg is to elevate the leg on 2 pillows. Elevating the leg helps reduce swelling and pain associated with thrombophlebitis by promoting venous return. Applying support stockings (choice B) can be beneficial but is not the highest priority as elevation is more effective in the acute phase. Applying warm compresses (choice C) may worsen the condition by dilating the blood vessels, leading to increased pain and swelling. Maintaining complete bed rest (choice D) is important, but elevation takes precedence to improve circulation and reduce the risk of complications.

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). The client is complaining of chest pain. The nurse knows that pain related to an MI is due to

• A. Insufficient oxygenation of the cardiac muscle
• B. Potential circulatory overload
• C. Left ventricular overload
• D. Electrolyte imbalance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Insufficient oxygenation of the cardiac muscle. Myocardial infarction pain is primarily caused by inadequate oxygen reaching the heart muscle, leading to ischemia and tissue damage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because circulatory overload, left ventricular overload, and electrolyte imbalance are not the primary causes of chest pain in myocardial infarction. Circulatory overload may lead to other symptoms like edema, left ventricular overload can result in heart failure symptoms, and electrolyte imbalance may present with various manifestations, but none of these directly cause the characteristic chest pain associated with an MI.

3. A 19-year-old client is paralyzed in a car accident. Which statement used by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client was using the mechanism of 'suppression'?

• A. "I don't remember anything about what happened to me."
• B. "I'd rather not talk about it right now."
• C. "It's all the other guy's fault! He was going too fast."
• D. "My mother is heartbroken about this."

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the statement "I'd rather not talk about it right now" indicates that the client is consciously choosing to avoid discussing the distressing issue, which aligns with the mechanism of suppression. Choice A does not involve active avoidance but rather memory loss, which is not suppression. Choice C involves blaming others, which is a defense mechanism known as projection. Choice D involves expressing emotions rather than avoiding them, which does not align with suppression.

4. What title should be given to this occupational health nurse job description? A registered nurse who functions in a comprehensive executive role to set goals, formulate policy, and direct and evaluate the health service.

• A. manager
• B. researcher
• C. health educator
• D. health promotion specialist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'manager.' In the job description provided, the role involves setting goals, formulating policy, and directing and evaluating health services, which aligns with the responsibilities of a manager. A 'researcher' primarily focuses on conducting research, a 'health educator' specializes in educating individuals about health-related topics, and a 'health promotion specialist' concentrates on promoting health and wellness initiatives. Therefore, 'manager' is the most suitable title for the described role.

5. A client with terminal cancer is experiencing severe pain. The nurse plans to implement which of the following pain management strategies?

• A. Administer analgesics on a fixed schedule
• B. Administer analgesics only when the client requests
• C. Use non-pharmacological methods only
• D. Increase the dose of analgesics when the client complains of pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering analgesics on a fixed schedule is the most appropriate pain management strategy for a client with terminal cancer experiencing severe pain. This approach ensures consistent pain control and helps prevent breakthrough pain. Administering analgesics only when the client requests (Choice B) may lead to uncontrolled pain as the client may delay requesting medication until the pain becomes unbearable. Using non-pharmacological methods only (Choice C) may not provide adequate pain relief for a client experiencing severe pain. Increasing the dose of analgesics when the client complains of pain (Choice D) may result in inconsistent pain control and could lead to potential overdose or adverse effects.

Similar Questions