a client diagnosed with a urinary tract infection is prescribed an ampicillin which nursing intervention is most important for the practical nurse to
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HESI LPN

Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023

1. What is the primary nursing intervention that the practical nurse should perform before administering ampicillin to a client diagnosed with a urinary tract infection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a clean-catch urine specimen. Before administering ampicillin to a client with a urinary tract infection, it is crucial to collect a urine specimen to determine the causative organism and evaluate the effectiveness of pharmacological therapy. Assessing the urine pH for acidity (choice B) is not the primary intervention needed before administering ampicillin. Inserting an indwelling catheter (choice C) is invasive and not necessary unless indicated for specific reasons. Assessing for complaints of dysuria (choice D) is important but does not take precedence over obtaining a urine specimen for proper diagnosis and treatment.

2. What instructions should the practical nurse (PN) review with a client diagnosed with vaginal trichomoniasis who is prescribed oral metronidazole?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The practical nurse should instruct the client that their sexual partner(s) should also be treated when dealing with vaginal trichomoniasis. This is crucial to prevent reinfection as sexual intercourse is the route of spread for this infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While avoiding direct sunlight exposure and using sunscreen is important for some medications, it is not specifically related to metronidazole treatment for trichomoniasis. Avoiding vinegar or commercial douches is a general recommendation for vaginal health and not specific to this infection. Eliminating dairy products from the diet is not a typical instruction for clients prescribed metronidazole for vaginal trichomoniasis.

3. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Venlafaxine, a medication used for generalized anxiety disorder, can commonly cause nausea as a side effect. It is essential for clients to be aware of this potential side effect and advised to take the medication with food if nausea occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, insomnia, and headache are less commonly associated side effects of venlafaxine compared to nausea.

4. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed omeprazole. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD prescribed omeprazole is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. Omeprazole works best when taken on an empty stomach, approximately 30 minutes before the first meal of the day. This timing maximizes its effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production and helps manage symptoms of GERD more efficiently. Choice B is incorrect because taking omeprazole with meals may reduce its efficacy as it needs an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is incorrect because omeprazole can be taken with or without food, but it should not be taken with antacids as they can affect its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because taking omeprazole at bedtime is less effective compared to taking it before breakfast due to the circadian rhythm of gastric acid secretion.

5. During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics. Discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.

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