Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary nursing intervention that the practical nurse should perform before administering ampicillin to a client diagnosed with a urinary tract infection?

• A. Obtain a clean-catch urine specimen.
• B. Assess the urine pH for acidity.
• C. Insert an indwelling catheter.
• D. Assess for complaints of dysuria.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a clean-catch urine specimen. Before administering ampicillin to a client with a urinary tract infection, it is crucial to collect a urine specimen to determine the causative organism and evaluate the effectiveness of pharmacological therapy. Assessing the urine pH for acidity (choice B) is not the primary intervention needed before administering ampicillin. Inserting an indwelling catheter (choice C) is invasive and not necessary unless indicated for specific reasons. Assessing for complaints of dysuria (choice D) is important but does not take precedence over obtaining a urine specimen for proper diagnosis and treatment.

2. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 prescribed alogliptin?

• A. Report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider.
• B. Take this medication with meals.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Report any signs of heart failure to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider. Alogliptin is associated with an increased risk of pancreatitis. Therefore, clients should be instructed to report any signs of pancreatitis, such as severe abdominal pain, to their healthcare provider promptly. This is essential for early detection and management of this serious adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific side effect associated with alogliptin.

3. During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Explain the importance of obtaining a blood sample promptly to test for medication toxicity
• B. Consult with the healthcare provider regarding the necessity of an opioid analgesic for pain relief
• C. Recommend the client to discontinue the medication until contacting the healthcare provider
• D. Instruct the client on the use of acetaminophen every 4-6 hours as needed for headaches

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics. Discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.

4. An older adult with iron deficiency anemia is being discharged with iron supplements, which information should the nurse include in the discharge?

• A. Take the tablet with a daily multivitamin
• B. Crush the tablet and mix it with pudding
• C. Bedtime is the best time to take the tablet
• D. Wait 2 hours after meals to take the tablet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to wait 2 hours after meals before taking the iron tablet. This is important to ensure better absorption and efficacy of the iron supplement. Taking the tablet with a daily multivitamin (Choice A) may interfere with iron absorption due to interactions with other minerals. Crushing the tablet and mixing it with pudding (Choice B) can alter the effectiveness of the medication. While bedtime (Choice C) may be convenient, waiting after meals is crucial for optimal iron absorption.

5. A client with hypertension is prescribed clonidine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Dizziness
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Clonidine, a medication used to treat hypertension, can cause a lowering of blood pressure leading to hypotension as a potential side effect. Monitoring for hypotension is essential to prevent complications such as dizziness, fainting, or falls. Option B, Tachycardia, is incorrect as clonidine typically causes bradycardia or a decreased heart rate. Option C, Dizziness, can occur due to hypotension caused by clonidine. Option D, Hyperglycemia, is not a common side effect associated with clonidine use.

Similar Questions