HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. A client confides to the nurse that the client has been substituting herbal supplements for high blood pressure instead of the prescribed medication. How should the nurse respond first?
- A. Ask the client's reason for choosing to take herbs instead of prescribed medication
- B. Reinforce that the healthcare provider prescribed the medication for a reason
- C. Have the client use their own words to describe complications of high blood pressure
- D. Point out the risks of not taking the prescribed medication rather than herbal supplements
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client's reason for choosing to take herbs instead of prescribed medication. Understanding the client's rationale for using herbal supplements allows the nurse to explore any misconceptions and provide education on the importance of the prescribed medication. Choice B is incorrect because simply reinforcing the prescription does not address the client's concerns or reasons for using herbal supplements. Choice C does not directly address the immediate concern of the client substituting medication with herbal supplements. Choice D focuses on the risks of not taking the prescribed medication rather than herbal supplements, which is not the most appropriate initial response.
2. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
- B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
- C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
- D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.
3. A client post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery is concerned about the risk of infection. What is the most important preventive measure the nurse should emphasize during discharge teaching?
- A. Avoid touching the incision sites with bare hands.
- B. Take all prescribed antibiotics as directed.
- C. Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider immediately.
- D. Keep the incision sites clean and dry.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Keep the incision sites clean and dry.' After CABG surgery, maintaining the cleanliness and dryness of the incision sites is crucial to prevent infections. This practice reduces the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms to the surgical wound, promoting healing and preventing complications. Option A, while important, does not fully encompass the preventive measures necessary to avoid infections post-surgery. Option B is significant if antibiotics are prescribed, but ensuring cleanliness directly addresses infection prevention. Option C is reactive and focuses on addressing infection after it occurs, rather than proactively preventing it.
4. The PN identifies an electrolyte imbalance, exhibited by changes in mental status, and an elevated blood pressure for a client with progressive heart disease. Which intervention should the PN implement first?
- A. Record usual eating patterns
- B. Evaluate for muscle cramping
- C. Document abdominal girth
- D. Elevate both legs on pillows
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Evaluating for muscle cramping, which is a sign of electrolyte imbalance, is crucial in this scenario. Electrolyte imbalances, especially involving potassium or calcium, can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or seizures, which need immediate attention. Recording eating patterns (choice A) may be important for overall assessment but is not the priority in this situation. Documenting abdominal girth (choice C) and elevating legs on pillows (choice D) are not directly related to addressing the immediate concern of electrolyte imbalance and its potential complications.
5. At what age does a 9-year-old child typically lose which of the following teeth?
- A. Central incisor
- B. Second molar
- C. Lateral incisor
- D. Cuspid
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A 9-year-old child typically loses their central incisors, not the lateral incisors or second molars. The central incisors are usually among the first teeth that children lose around 6 to 7 years of age, as part of the natural process of shedding primary teeth to make way for permanent teeth. The second molars and cuspids are typically lost later in the mixed dentition phase. Therefore, option A, 'Central incisor,' is the correct answer.
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