HESI LPN
HESI Pediatrics Quizlet
1. A child is brought to the clinic after tripping over a rock. The child states, 'I twisted my ankle,' and is given a diagnosis of a sprain. What intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge instructions for this child?
- A. For the first 24 hours, apply ice for 20 minutes and then remove for 60 minutes.
- B. Bed rest with the leg elevated for 36 hours.
- C. May take an NSAID for pain as needed.
- D. Use a compression dressing for 72 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a sprained ankle is to apply ice for 20 minutes every hour for the first 24 hours, then remove for 60 minutes to prevent tissue damage. This regimen helps reduce swelling and pain. Bed rest with the leg elevated for an extended period (36 hours) may lead to stiffness and decreased range of motion. While NSAIDs can be used for pain, they may not be necessary if pain is manageable with ice and rest. Using a compression dressing for 72 hours continuously may impede proper circulation and delay healing by restricting blood flow.
2. Which nursing diagnosis should be selected for a client who is receiving thrombolytic infusions for treatment of an acute myocardial infarction?
- A. Risk for infection related to thrombolysis.
- B. Risk for fluid volume deficit related to thrombolysis.
- C. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to thrombolysis.
- D. Risk for injury related to effects of thrombolysis.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy increases the risk of bleeding, not infection, fluid volume deficit, or impaired skin integrity. The most significant concern with thrombolytic therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, which can lead to various injuries. Therefore, 'Risk for injury related to effects of thrombolysis' is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this scenario. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the primary risk associated with thrombolytic therapy.
3. An elderly client was prescribed Ativan 1 mg three times a day to help calm her anxiety after her husband's death. The next day the client calls her daughter asking when she is picking her up to go to the graveside. The client says she has been walking up and down the driveway for the past hour waiting for her daughter. Noting the client's agitation, hyperactivity, and insistence, the daughter calls the nurse to report her mother's behavior. What should the nurse suspect?
- A. The client is manic and may need a sleeping pill
- B. The client is experiencing a medication interaction and should go to the ED
- C. The client is experiencing a paradoxical reaction to the Ativan and should stop the new medication immediately
- D. The client is overcome by grief and probably needs an antidepressant
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A paradoxical reaction to Ativan, where the drug causes opposite effects such as increased agitation and hyperactivity, should prompt immediate cessation of the medication. In this scenario, the client was prescribed Ativan to help calm her anxiety, but instead, she is displaying symptoms of increased agitation and hyperactivity, indicating a paradoxical reaction. Choice A is incorrect because the symptoms described do not align with mania. Choice B is incorrect as there is no mention of a medication interaction. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of a paradoxical reaction rather than overwhelming grief.
4. Which statement correctly explains the etiology of Down syndrome?
- A. There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.
- B. There is a missing chromosome on the 21st pair.
- C. There are two pairs of the 21st chromosome.
- D. The 21st chromosome pair is missing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.' Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, known as trisomy 21. This additional genetic material leads to the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Down syndrome is not due to a missing chromosome or having two pairs of the 21st chromosome; it results from the presence of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.
5. The client is advised to take dexamethasone (Decadron) with food or milk. What is the physiological basis for this advice?
- A. Inhibits pepsin production
- B. Stimulates hydrochloric acid production
- C. Delays stomach emptying time
- D. Reduces hydrochloric acid production
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stimulates hydrochloric acid production. Dexamethasone can stimulate the production of hydrochloric acid in the stomach, which may lead to irritation of the stomach lining. Taking dexamethasone with food or milk helps to neutralize or buffer the acid, reducing the risk of stomach irritation. Choice A is incorrect because dexamethasone does not inhibit pepsin production. Choice C is incorrect as dexamethasone does not slow stomach emptying time. Choice D is incorrect as dexamethasone does not reduce hydrochloric acid production.