Nursing Elites

1. How is the diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease confirmed in a 1-month-old infant admitted to the pediatric unit?

• A. Colonoscopy
• B. Rectal biopsy
• C. Multiple saline enemas
• D. Fiberoptic nasoenteric tube

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rectal biopsy is the definitive diagnostic procedure for Hirschsprung disease in infants. It confirms the absence of ganglion cells in the affected bowel segment, which is characteristic of Hirschsprung disease. Colonoscopy (Choice A) is not typically used for confirmation as it may not provide a definitive result. Multiple saline enemas (Choice C) are utilized in the treatment of meconium ileus, a complication of cystic fibrosis, and not in the diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease. Fiberoptic nasoenteric tube (Choice D) is not a diagnostic tool for Hirschsprung disease; it is commonly used for gastrointestinal decompression or feeding purposes but does not confirm the diagnosis.

2. What is a key assessment the nurse should perform for a 5-year-old child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Monitor blood glucose levels
• B. Monitor respiratory rate
• C. Monitor urine output
• D. Monitor for signs of infection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring urine output is crucial in assessing kidney function in a child with acute glomerulonephritis. In this condition, there is inflammation in the glomeruli of the kidneys, affecting their ability to filter waste and excess fluids from the blood. Monitoring urine output helps evaluate the kidneys' ability to excrete waste and maintain fluid balance. Options A, B, and D are less relevant in the context of acute glomerulonephritis. Monitoring blood glucose levels is more pertinent in conditions like diabetes, monitoring respiratory rate is important for respiratory conditions, and monitoring for signs of infection is crucial in cases of suspected infections but is not the primary assessment focus in acute glomerulonephritis.

3. What is an important nursing consideration for a child with a diagnosis of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) being treated with methotrexate?

• A. Monitor liver function tests regularly
• B. Encourage regular exercise
• C. Provide high-calorie snacks
• D. Encourage frequent handwashing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring liver function tests regularly is crucial when a child with JIA is on methotrexate due to the potential hepatotoxicity associated with this medication. Methotrexate can lead to liver damage, hence monitoring helps in early detection and intervention. Encouraging regular exercise (Choice B) is generally good for children with JIA to maintain joint mobility and muscle strength, but it is not directly related to methotrexate therapy. Providing high-calorie snacks (Choice C) is not a priority consideration for a child on methotrexate. Encouraging frequent handwashing (Choice D) is important for infection control, but it is not specifically associated with methotrexate therapy in a child with JIA.

4. What is an important nursing responsibility when a dysrhythmia is suspected?

• A. Order an immediate electrocardiogram
• B. Count the radial pulse every minute for five times
• C. Count the apical pulse for 1 full minute and compare the rate with the radial pulse rate
• D. Have someone else take the radial pulse simultaneously with the apical pulse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a dysrhythmia is suspected, it is important for nurses to count the apical pulse for a full minute and compare it with the radial pulse rate. This method helps in identifying dysrhythmias because discrepancies between the apical and radial pulse rates can indicate irregular heart rhythms. Option A is incorrect because ordering an immediate electrocardiogram may not always be feasible or necessary as a first step. Option B, counting the radial pulse multiple times, is less accurate than comparing the apical and radial pulse rates. Option D involves an unnecessary step of having another person take simultaneous pulses when the nurse can do it effectively alone.

5. During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classifications. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?

• A. Skin that is reddened, dry, and slightly swollen
• B. Skin appearing wet with significant pain
• C. Skin with blistering and swelling
• D. Skin that is leathery and dry with some numbness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Full-thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. This type of burn extends through all layers of the skin, affecting nerve endings. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial partial-thickness burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice B describes characteristics of superficial burns, or first-degree burns, which only affect the epidermis. Choice C describes characteristics of superficial to mid-dermal burns, also known as second-degree burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis but do not extend through all skin layers. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

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