Nursing Elites

1. What is an important nursing responsibility when a dysrhythmia is suspected?

• A. order an immediate electrocardiogram
• B. count the radial pulse every 1 minute for five times
• C. count the apical pulse for 1 full minute, and compare the rate with the radial pulse rate
• D. have someone else take the radial pulse simultaneously with the apical pulse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a dysrhythmia is suspected, an important nursing responsibility is to count the apical pulse for 1 full minute and then compare this rate with the radial pulse rate. This method helps in identifying dysrhythmias as it allows for a direct comparison of the heart's rhythm at two different pulse points. Ordering an immediate electrocardiogram (Choice A) may be necessary but should not be the first step. Counting the radial pulse multiple times (Choice B) is not as accurate as comparing rates directly. Having someone else take the radial pulse simultaneously (Choice D) may introduce errors and inconsistencies in the measurement.

2. What is the most common cause of shock (hypoperfusion) in infants and children?

• A. infection
• B. cardiac failure
• C. accidental poisoning
• D. severe allergic reaction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Infection is the most common cause of shock in infants and children due to their increased susceptibility to sepsis. Infants and children have underdeveloped immune systems, making them more prone to infections that can lead to septic shock. While cardiac failure is a serious condition, it is not the most common cause of shock in this population. Accidental poisoning, though dangerous, is less common than infection in causing shock in infants and children. Severe allergic reactions can lead to anaphylactic shock, but they are not as prevalent as infections in causing shock in this age group.

3. A child is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. Which laboratory test would the nurse expect the child to undergo to provide additional evidence for this condition?

• A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
• B. Potassium hydroxide prep
• C. Wound culture
• D. Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) level. An elevated serum IgE level is commonly associated with atopic dermatitis, reflecting an allergic response. Choice A, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, is not typically used to diagnose atopic dermatitis. Choice B, potassium hydroxide prep, is used to identify fungal infections like ringworm, not for diagnosing atopic dermatitis. Choice C, wound culture, is performed to identify microorganisms in a wound, not to diagnose atopic dermatitis.

4. A healthcare professional plans to discuss childhood nutrition with a group of parents whose children have Down syndrome in an attempt to minimize a common nutritional problem. What problem should be addressed?

• A. Rickets
• B. Obesity
• C. Anemia
• D. Rumination

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Childhood obesity is a prevalent issue in children with Down syndrome due to factors such as decreased physical activity, slower metabolism, and potential overeating tendencies. Addressing obesity is crucial to promoting healthy lifestyles and preventing associated health complications. Rickets, a condition caused by a deficiency of vitamin D, is not commonly associated with Down syndrome. While anemia can occur in individuals with Down syndrome, obesity is a more common concern. Rumination, the regurgitation of food without nausea, is not a typical nutritional problem in children with Down syndrome.

5. During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classifications. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?

• A. Skin that is reddened, dry, and slightly swollen
• B. Skin appearing wet with significant pain
• C. Skin with blistering and swelling
• D. Skin that is leathery and dry with some numbness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Full-thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. This type of burn extends through all layers of the skin, affecting nerve endings. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial partial-thickness burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice B describes characteristics of superficial burns, or first-degree burns, which only affect the epidermis. Choice C describes characteristics of superficial to mid-dermal burns, also known as second-degree burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis but do not extend through all skin layers. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

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