a child has been diagnosed with classic hemophilia a nurse teaches the childs parents how to administer the plasma component factor viii through a ven
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Pediatric HESI Practice Questions

1. A child has been diagnosed with classic hemophilia. A nurse teaches the child’s parents how to administer the plasma component factor VIII through a venous port. It is to be given 3 times a week. What should the nurse tell them about when to administer this therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering factor VIII in the morning on scheduled days is the correct choice. This timing ensures that the factor VIII levels remain stable throughout the day when the child is active and at risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because factor VIII should be given on a regular schedule rather than only when a bleed is suspected. Choice C is not ideal as the child may be more active during the day, increasing the risk of bleeding. Choice D is also incorrect as the administration should follow a specific schedule to maintain therapeutic levels of factor VIII in the child's system.

2. What should the nurse include in the preoperative teaching for a 4-year-old child scheduled for a myringotomy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a 4-year-old child scheduled for a myringotomy, explaining the procedure in simple terms is essential in helping the child understand what will happen during the surgery and reducing anxiety. Encouraging fluid intake, allowing the child to play with medical equipment, and using play therapy are not directly related to preparing the child for the myringotomy procedure. Therefore, these options are incorrect and not as beneficial as explaining the procedure in simple terms.

3. When assessing a child with a possible fracture, what would be the most reliable indicator for the nurse to identify?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Point tenderness is the most reliable indicator of a possible fracture in a child. It refers to localized pain at a specific point, indicating a potential bone injury. Lack of spontaneous movement (Choice A) is non-specific and can be due to various reasons. Bruising (Choice C) may be present in fractures but is not as specific as point tenderness. Inability to bear weight (Choice D) can also be seen in fractures but may not always be present, making it less reliable compared to point tenderness.

4. A 34-year-old woman, who is 36 weeks pregnant, is having a seizure. After you protect her airway and ensure adequate ventilation, you should transport her

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Transporting a pregnant woman who is having a seizure on her left side is crucial as it helps improve blood flow to the fetus and reduces the risk of further complications. Placing her in the prone position or supine position may compromise blood flow to the fetus and worsen the situation. A semi-sitting position is also not recommended as it may not provide optimal blood flow to the fetus or adequately protect the airway during a seizure.

5. The nurse notes that a child has lost 8 pounds after 4 days of hospitalization for acute glomerulonephritis. This is most likely the result of

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: reduction of edema. In acute glomerulonephritis, weight loss is often a result of the reduction of edema. Acute glomerulonephritis causes fluid retention and edema due to kidney inflammation. As the inflammation resolves with treatment, the kidneys can excrete excess fluid, leading to weight loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Poor appetite, increased potassium intake, and restriction to bed rest are not typically the primary reasons for weight loss in acute glomerulonephritis.

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