Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a child with a possible fracture, what would be the most reliable indicator for the nurse to identify?

• A. Lack of spontaneous movement
• B. Point tenderness
• C. Bruising
• D. Inability to bear weight

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Point tenderness is the most reliable indicator of a possible fracture in a child. It refers to localized pain at a specific point, indicating a potential bone injury. Lack of spontaneous movement (Choice A) is non-specific and can be due to various reasons. Bruising (Choice C) may be present in fractures but is not as specific as point tenderness. Inability to bear weight (Choice D) can also be seen in fractures but may not always be present, making it less reliable compared to point tenderness.

2. A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?

• A. Surfactant improves the ability of your baby’s lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.
• B. The drug prevents your baby from requiring excessive sedation.
• C. Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea.
• D. Your baby needs this medication to combat a potential respiratory tract infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Surfactant therapy is explained to parents as a treatment that enhances the lungs' ability to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide. This is essential for premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) as it helps improve their respiratory function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because surfactant therapy primarily focuses on addressing lung function and is not related to sedation, apnea reduction, or fighting respiratory tract infections.

3. A child has been admitted to the pediatric unit with a severe asthma attack. What type of acid-base imbalance should the nurse expect the child to develop?

• A. metabolic alkalosis caused by decreased acid metabolites production
• B. respiratory alkalosis caused by decreased respiratory rate and carbon dioxide retention
• C. respiratory acidosis caused by impaired respirations and increased carbonic acid formation
• D. metabolic acidosis caused by the kidneys' inability to compensate for increased carbonic acid production

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a severe asthma attack, the child is likely to develop respiratory acidosis due to impaired respirations leading to the retention of carbon dioxide, which combines with water to form carbonic acid. This results in the pH imbalance characterized by an excess of carbonic acid. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis (Choice A) is not typically associated with severe asthma attacks; respiratory alkalosis (Choice B) would involve a decrease, not an increase, in carbon dioxide levels; and metabolic acidosis (Choice D) is not the primary acid-base imbalance seen in severe asthma attacks.

4. When assessing a child with suspected nephrotic syndrome, what clinical manifestation is the nurse likely to observe?

• A. Jaundice
• B. Edema
• C. Hypertension
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Edema is a hallmark clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. In nephrotic syndrome, there is increased glomerular permeability leading to the loss of proteins, particularly albumin, in the urine. This results in decreased oncotic pressure, leading to fluid shifting into the interstitial spaces and causing edema. Jaundice (Choice A) is not a typical clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. Hypertension (Choice C) is more commonly associated with conditions like glomerulonephritis. Polyuria (Choice D) is not a primary symptom of nephrotic syndrome; instead, patients may have reduced urine output due to fluid retention from edema.

5. Following delivery of a newborn, the 21-year-old mother is experiencing mild vaginal bleeding. You note that her heart rate has increased from 90 to 120 beats/min and she is diaphoretic. Management should include

• A. Oxygen, uterine massage, and transport
• B. Oxygen, placement on the left side, and transport
• C. Oxygen, treatment for shock, and uterine massage during transport
• D. Oxygen, internal vaginal pads, and treatment for shock during transport

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the 21-year-old mother is showing signs of hemorrhagic shock with increased heart rate, diaphoresis, and vaginal bleeding. The appropriate management includes providing oxygen to support tissue perfusion, treating for shock to restore adequate circulation, and performing uterine massage to help control bleeding during transport. Options A, B, and D do not address the comprehensive management needed for postpartum hemorrhage in this situation.

Similar Questions