Nursing Elites

1. What is a major benefit of electronic health records (EHRs)?

• A. Increased paperwork
• B. Better coordination of care
• C. Higher risk of data breaches
• D. More manual data entry

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The major benefit of electronic health records (EHRs) is better coordination of care. EHRs allow healthcare providers to access and share patient information more efficiently, leading to improved coordination and continuity of care. Choice A, increased paperwork, is incorrect as EHRs aim to reduce paperwork by digitizing and centralizing health records. Choice C, higher risk of data breaches, is incorrect as EHRs have security measures in place to protect patient data. Choice D, more manual data entry, is incorrect as EHRs aim to automate and streamline data entry processes.

2. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is:

• A. 8 to 12 months of age.
• B. 20 to 24 months of age.
• C. 16 to 20 months of age.
• D. 12 to 16 months of age.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8 to 12 months of age. Surgical correction for a cleft palate is typically performed around this age to optimize speech development and prevent feeding difficulties. Options B, C, and D suggest later ages for surgery, which may lead to speech and feeding issues due to the delay in correction.

3. Which of the following methods of insulin administration would be used in the initial treatment of hyperglycemia in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis?

• A. Subcutaneous
• B. Intramuscular
• C. IV bolus only
• D. IV bolus, followed by continuous infusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: IV bolus, followed by continuous infusion. In the initial treatment of hyperglycemia in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis, insulin is administered via IV bolus to quickly reduce blood glucose levels, followed by a continuous infusion to maintain control. Subcutaneous and intramuscular routes are not used in this situation as they are not rapid or predictable enough to address the acute hyperglycemia seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. IV bolus alone without the continuous infusion may not provide sustained control of blood glucose levels, making choice C incorrect.

4. Which manifestation should the nurse expect to assess in a patient with fluid volume deficit?

• A. Headache and muscle cramps
• B. Dyspnea and respiratory crackles
• C. Increased pulse rate and blood pressure
• D. Orthostatic hypotension and flat neck veins

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension and flat neck veins are classic manifestations of fluid volume deficit. When the body loses fluid, blood volume decreases, leading to decreased venous return to the heart, resulting in orthostatic hypotension and flat neck veins. Choices A, B, and C are more indicative of other conditions such as dehydration, respiratory issues, or compensatory mechanisms in response to hypovolemia, respectively.

5. A charge nurse making rounds observes that an assistive personnel (AP) has applied wrist restraints to a client who is agitated and does not have a prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Remove the restraints from the client's wrists
• B. Review the chart for nonrestraint alternatives for agitation
• C. Speak with the AP about the incident
• D. Inform the unit manager of the incident

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to remove the restraints from the client's wrists. Restraints should not be applied without a prescription due to the risk of harm to the client. Removing the restraints promptly is a priority to ensure the client's safety. Reviewing nonrestraint alternatives, speaking with the AP, and informing the unit manager can follow after ensuring the client's immediate safety by removing the restraints.

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