Nursing Elites

1. Dr. Shrunk orders intravenous (IV) insulin for Rita, a client with a blood sugar of 563. Nurse AJ administers insulin lispro (Humalog) intravenously (IV). What does the best evaluation of the nurse reveal? Select one that does not apply.

• A. The nurse could have given the insulin subcutaneously.
• B. The nurse did not have to contact the physician.
• C. The nurse should have used regular insulin (Humulin R).
• D. The nurse used the correct insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best evaluation of the nurse reveals that she should have used regular insulin (Humulin R) for IV administration. Regular insulin is the only insulin approved for intravenous administration due to its pharmacokinetic properties. Insulin lispro (Humalog) is not suitable for IV use. Choice A is incorrect because giving insulin intravenously is necessary in this case of high blood sugar. Choice B is incorrect because administering a different insulin without consulting the physician is not appropriate. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse used the incorrect insulin, which could pose risks to the client's health.

2. What is the most common cause of HHNS?

• A. Insulin overdose
• B. Removal of the adrenal gland
• C. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism
• D. Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is most commonly caused by undiagnosed and untreated diabetes mellitus. Insulin overdose (Choice A) is not a typical cause of HHNS; it is more related to hypoglycemia. Removal of the adrenal gland (Choice B) can lead to adrenal insufficiency but is not a common cause of HHNS. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism (Choice C) is not a usual cause of HHNS; it is more related to pituitary hormone imbalances rather than hyperglycemia.

3. Select all of the risk factors that are associated with deep vein thrombosis.

• A. The use of oral contraceptives
• B. Type B and O blood
• C. Rh negative blood
• D. Underweight

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "The use of oral contraceptives." Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis include factors such as immobility, surgery, cancer, obesity, smoking, and the use of oral contraceptives. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood type and Rh factor do not play a role in the development of deep vein thrombosis, and being underweight is not typically considered a risk factor for this condition.

4. A client with DM has an above-knee amputation because of severe peripheral vascular disease. Two days following surgery, when preparing the client for dinner, what is the nurse's primary responsibility?

• A. Check the client's serum glucose level
• B. Assist the client out of bed to the chair
• C. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
• D. Ensure that the client's residual limb is elevated

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's serum glucose level. In a client with diabetes who just had surgery, monitoring the serum glucose level is crucial to ensure proper management of the condition. This helps in preventing complications related to blood sugar fluctuations. Assisting the client out of bed may be important but not the primary responsibility at this time. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position or ensuring the residual limb is elevated are important interventions for comfort and circulation but are not the primary concern in this scenario.

5. A client with type 1 DM has a finger stick glucose level of 258mg/dl at bedtime. An order for sliding scale insulin exists. The nurse should:

• A. Call the physician
• B. Encourage the intake of fluids
• C. Administer the insulin as ordered
• D. Give the client ½ cup of orange juice

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with type 1 DM has a high glucose level at bedtime. The appropriate action for the nurse is to administer the sliding scale insulin as ordered. This insulin regimen is specifically designed to manage high blood glucose levels. Calling the physician is not necessary as the protocol for sliding scale insulin is already in place. Encouraging fluid intake or providing orange juice is not the correct intervention for addressing high blood glucose levels in this case.

Similar Questions