Nursing Elites

1. Dr. Shrunk orders intravenous (IV) insulin for Rita, a client with a blood sugar of 563. Nurse AJ administers insulin lispro (Humalog) intravenously (IV). What does the best evaluation of the nurse reveal? Select one that does not apply.

• A. The nurse could have given the insulin subcutaneously.
• B. The nurse did not have to contact the physician.
• C. The nurse should have used regular insulin (Humulin R).
• D. The nurse used the correct insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best evaluation of the nurse reveals that she should have used regular insulin (Humulin R) for IV administration. Regular insulin is the only insulin approved for intravenous administration due to its pharmacokinetic properties. Insulin lispro (Humalog) is not suitable for IV use. Choice A is incorrect because giving insulin intravenously is necessary in this case of high blood sugar. Choice B is incorrect because administering a different insulin without consulting the physician is not appropriate. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse used the incorrect insulin, which could pose risks to the client's health.

2. What is idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura?

• A. Highly similar to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
• B. Caused by the overproduction of platelets.
• C. A bleeding disorder that is characterized by too few platelets.
• D. Treated with immune system-boosting medications.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is a bleeding disorder characterized by a low number of platelets in the blood. This condition is not highly similar to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which involves abnormal clotting throughout the body (coagulation), leading to depletion of platelets. Choice B is incorrect because idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is actually characterized by a decrease in platelet count, not an overproduction. While immune system-boosting medications may be used in some cases, the primary treatment for idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura focuses on increasing platelet counts or managing symptoms.

3. Which of the following is the best argument for lower patient-to-nurse ratio?

• A. The more patients a nurse has, the better the nurse will be at catching early warning signs.
• B. Greater patient-to-nurse ratios decrease patient mortality.
• C. Adequate nurse levels do not impact the prevalence of urinary tract infections.
• D. Community nursing ratios do not impact Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) rates.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best argument for lower patient-to-nurse ratios is that they decrease patient mortality. Choice A is incorrect because having more patients can lead to increased workload and decreased attention per patient. Choice C is incorrect as adequate nurse levels can indeed impact the prevalence of infections. Choice D is incorrect as community nursing ratios can impact MRSA rates due to potential transmission risks in healthcare settings.

4. Most water leaves the body by way of the:

• A. Lungs
• B. Intestines
• C. Skin
• D. Kidneys

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Most water leaves the body through the kidneys. The kidneys play a crucial role in filtering waste and excess substances from the blood to form urine, which is then excreted out of the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while a small amount of water can be lost through respiration, feces, and sweating, the primary organ responsible for regulating water balance and excretion is the kidneys.

5. Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?

• A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
• B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
• C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
• D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.

Similar Questions